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113 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which virus family is characterized by a single-stranded DNA genome?
Which virus family is characterized by a double-stranded RNA genome?
What are the criteria to classify a virus as robovirus? Write an example, too!
Robovirus: rodent reservoir (rodent-borne)
Arenaviridae – Lassa, Junin, Machupo, LCM virus;
What are the criteria to classify a virus as arbovirus? Write an example, too!
Arbovirus: arthropode vector (arthropode-borne);
Flaviviridae – yellow fever
Which viruses are susceptible to acyclovir? What is the mechanism of effect of the drug?
Herpesviridae – HSV1, HSV2, VZV; inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase and DNA
chain terminator
Explain why acyclovir is selectively toxic to cells infected by alpha-herpesviruses!
These viruses encode their own thymidine kinase enzymes, which are needed for
activation (phosphorylation) of the drug. Cellular thymidine kinase does not activate
the drug.
Which are the two most important targets of antiretroviral chemotherapy?
HIV reverse transcriptase and protease
In which cells do Herpes simlex viruses establish latent infection?
Sensory ganglion cells
What is the possible, late complication (years after acute infection) of the childhood
Herpes zoster (shingles)
What are the possible consequences of fetal infections caused by B19 parvovirus?
fetal death or hydrops fetalis
Which isotype of antigen-specific immunoglobulins in the newborn's blood indicates a
congenital infection?
What diseases do cytomegalovirus cause in congenital infections?
cytomegalic inclusion disease – spontaneous abortus, CNS damage (deafness, blindness,
mental retardation), hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice
What diseases do cytomegalovirus cause in immunocompetent persons?
mononucleosis infectiosa (heterophil-antibody negative)
Mention 2 diseases that cytomegalovirus can cause in immune compromised persons!
pneumonia, chorioretinitis, colitis
Which antiviral drug is active against cytomegalovirus infection?
Ganciklovir, (foscarnet, cidofovir)
What disease does Epstein-Barr virus cause? What are the Epstein-Barr virus associated
Mononucleosis infectiosa (heterophil positive)
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, other B-cell lymphomas
Describe the heterophil antibody test used in the Epstein-Barr virus diagnostics!
Paul-Bunnel test – in mononucleosis caused by EBV, the serum of the patient
agglutinates sheep red blood cells
Which virus causes exanthema subitum (roseola infantum)?
Which virus causes erythema infectiosum?
Human parvovirus B19
Reverse transcription is involved in the synthesis of the new genomic DNA of which DNA
Hepadnaviridae – HBV
What is the unique feature of the influenza virus genome, that accounts for antigenic
reassortment of genome segments
Which antigens of the influenza are recognized by neutralizing antibodies?
Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase
Which virus(es) is(are) susceptible to amantadine?
Influenza A virus
What is the possible late complication of measles infection (several years after the acute
SSPE – subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
What is the portal of entry of the viruses belonging to Paramyxoviridae?
Respiratory tract – aerosol infection
Which age group is mostly affected by respiratory syncitial (RS) virus infection?
babies (6 week – 6 month old)
What are the possible complitations/sequales of adult mumps virus infection?
Orchitis, meningitis, pancreatitis
What is the route of infection of rabies virus? How does rabies virus spread in the infected
By the bite of a rabid animal, (rarely by infectious aerosol)
spread of the virus in the host – along the axons
What medication does a person need after exposure to rabies virus?
Active immunization – human diploid cell vaccine (killed virus)
passive immunization – rabies immune globulin
What is the portal of entry of polioviruses? Which areas of the central nervous system are
affected by poliovirus infection?
oropharynx and gastrointestinal tract
damage in motor neurons in the anterior horn of the spinal cord + brain stem
Which viruses belong to the Enterovirus genus?
Polioviruses, coxsackie A and B viruses, echoviruses, enteroviruses
Mention 3 diseases caused by Coxsackie viruses!
myocarditis, pericarditis, meningitis,
What disease do rotaviruses cause? At which age?
gastroenteritis in young children
List the antigens of hepatitis B virus against which antibodies may develop during or after
the acute phase of infection?
HBsAg, HBeAg, HBcAg
Which hepatitis B-specific antibody is never present in chronic hepatitis?
Anti-Hbs, (anti-Hbe)
What are the main modes of transmission of HBV (hepatitis B virus) infection?
sexual contact; perinatally from mother to newborn; by blood or blood product
What are the 2 serological markers that are necessary and sufficient to prove acute
hepatitis B virus infection?
HBsAg, Anti-HBc IgM
Describe the active and passive prophylaxis against hepatitis B!
active immunization: recombinant HBsAg vaccine
passive immunization: HBIG (hepatitis B immune globulin)
Which hepatitis virus infections increase the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?
Which hepatitis viruses are acquired orally?
Which hepatitis viruses are acquired via parenteral routes?
Which virus can cause haemorrhagic fever with hepatitis and nephritis?
yellow fever virus
Describe the 2 different epidemiological cycles of yellow fever!
Jungle yellow fever: reservoir: monkeys; vector: Haemagogus mosquitos; humans:
accidental hosts
Urban yellow fever: reservoirs: humans; vectors : Aedes aegypti mosquitos
How can we prevent tick borne encephalitis?
Active immunization: killed virus vaccine, passive: specific immune globulin
Mention 4 diseases that can be caused by adenoviruses!
pharyngitis, bronchitis,
atypical pneumonia, hemorrhagic cystitis
Which viruses can cause human tumors?
Mention 3 opportunistic infections characteristic for AIDS!
Viruses: HSV-1
Protozoa: Toxoplasma gondii,
Bacteria: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Fungi: Candida
Describe the principals of the laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection!
Presumptive diagnosis: ELISA
Verification: Western-blot assay
Mention 2 human prion diseases!
Kuru, Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
What are the serious complications of HSV infection in newborns?
disseminated infections, encephalitis, skin, eye, mouth infection
Mention three sexually transmittable viral infections.
Mention at least five virus families containing DNA.
Parvoviridae, Papovaviridae , Herpesviridae, Adenoviridae, Poxviridae
What is the portal of entry for the mumps virus?
Upper respiratory tract
Mention at least two viruses capable of causing pneumonia.
RSV, influenza virus A and B
Mention two viruses capable of getting through the placenta.
Rubella virus, parvovirus B19
Mention 2 viral infections whose preventive strategy involves passive immunization!
Rabies, tick-borne encephalitis
List three viruses capable of causing (meningo)encephalitis!
Rabies, HSV, VZV
What is the causative agent of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?
Measles virus
What is(are) the nature(s) of antigen(s) in the combined vaccine against measles, German
measles and mumps?
live attenuated viruses
What is(are) the nature(s) of antigen(s) in the rabies vaccine for human usage?
Killed Virus
What is(are) the nature(s) of antigen(s) in the vaccine against influenza?
Killed virus. The vaccine contain 2 influenza A strains (H3N2, H1N1) and 1 influenza
B strain.
What is(are) the nature(s) of antigen(s) in the vaccine against hepatitis B?
Subunit vaccine, containing HBsAg.
What is(are) the nature(s) of antigen(s) in the vaccine against yellow fever?
Live attenuated virus (17D strain).
What is(are) the nature(s) of antigens in the vaccines against poliovirus?
IPV: inactivated polio vaccine: killed viruses (types 1, 2 and 3)
OPV: oral polio vaccine: live attenuated viruses (types 1, 2 and 3)
What is the causative agent of PML (progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy)?
JC vírus (Polyomaviridae)
Mention 3 nucleoside type reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS!
azidothymidine (zidovudine), dideoxyinozine (didanosine), dideoxycytidine
Mention 2 non nucleoside type reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in the therapy of
nevirapine, delavirdine
Mention 2 protease inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS!
indinavir, saquinavir
What is the principle of the „highly active antiretroviral therapy” (HAART) currently used
in the treatment of AIDS!
Combination of two nucleoside inhibitors (such as zidovudine and lamivudine) and a
protease inhibitor (such as indinavir).
Which influenza virus types are characterised by antigenic shift?
influenza A
Which influenza virus types are characterised by antigenic drift?
Influenza A and B
What is the nature of the immune response in diseases caused by prions?
There is no immune response, as prions are self proteins.
What types of human cancers are caused by EBV?
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, other B-cell lymphomas
What type of human cancer is caused most frequently by HHV8?
Kaposi’s sarcoma
What types of human cancers are caused by high-risk HPV types?
genital cancers, most importantly cervical cancer
Mention at least 3 diseases caused by herpes simplex viruses (HSV1, HSV2)!
oropharyngeal herpes (gingivostomatitis, herpes labialis),
encephalitis, herpes genitalis
What are the possible consequences of fetal infections caused by rubella virus?
Congenital malformations involving the heart (patent ductus arteriosus, septum
defects), the eyes (cataract, glaucoma) and the brain (deafness, mental reardation).
Which ifluenza A subtypes cause most human infections currently?
H1N1, H3N2
Mention a worm species for which ab ano ad os auto-reinfection is characteristic in
Enterobius vermicularis
Mention 2 worm species that migrate through the human lungs in the larval stage!
Ascaris lumbricoides
Ancylostoma duodenale
Necator americanus
Strongyloides stercoralis
Which protozoa may infect the human foetus transplacentally?
Toxoplasma gondii
Plasmodium species
What is the laboratory diagnosis of malaria?
Giemsa-stained blood smears. Thick smear is used to screen for the agent, thin smear is
used to identify the species.
How long is the erytrocytic cycle of Plasmodium vivax and P. ovale?
48 hours
How long is the erytrocytic cycle of Plasmodium malariae?
72 hours
What is the causative agent of malignant malaria?
Plasmodium falciparum
Mention an antimalarial drug active against hypnozoites!
How can one diagnose the African sleeping sickness disease?
Giemsa-stained blood smears are used for direct demonstration
Serology may be helpful
What are the causative agents of African sleeping sickness?
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and rhodesiense
How can one diagnose amebic dysenetery?
Microscopic demonstration of E. histolytica cysts and trophozoites from feces
How can one diagnose Trichomonas vaginalis infection?
Direct demonstration of protozoa in wet mount or stained smear of clinical specimens
(vaginal, urethral or prostatic secretions).
How can one diagnose intestinal taeniasis?
Demonstration of characteristic proglottis and eggs (ova) in faeces.
How can one diagnose Hymenolepis infection?
Demonstration of eggs (ova) in faeces
How can one diagnose Ascaris infection?
Demonstration of eggs (ova) in faeces
How can one diagnose trichuriasis?
Demonstration of eggs (ova) in faeces
How can one diagnose Enetrobius infection?
Demonstration of eggs (ova) recovered from perianal skin (Scotch tape technique). Not
from feces!
Mention 4 tissue infecting filarial nematodes!
Wuchereria bancrofti
Loa loa
Oncocerca volvulus
Dracunculus medinensis
How is human Fasciola hepatica infection acquired?
By eating aquatic vegetation containing encysted larvae
(Rarely: by eating raw sheep liver containing adult worms)
What disease is caused if humans are infected per os with Taenia solium eggs?
human cysticercosis (encysted larvae in brain, eyes, etc.)
How is human Trichinella spiralis infection acquired?
By eating raw or undercooked meat containing encysted larvae
Mention 2 protozoa that are susceptible to metronidazol!
Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia lamblia
What are the modes of transmission for human Toxoplasma gondii infection?
Eating undercooked meat containing tissue cysts,
Contact with cat feces containing oocysts
Transplacental transmission
Mention 2 helminths whose larvae enter the human body by penetratring the intact skin!
Necator americanus
Which developmental form of Echinococcus granulosus can occur in humans?
Hydatid cyst
What is the definitive (ultimate) host of Echinococcus granulosus?
Which species are the causative agents of malaria?
Plasmodium vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, P. falciparum
What is the definitive (ultimate) host of Plasmodium species?
female Anopheles mosquito
What are the definitive, and the intermediate hosts of Taenia saginata, respectively?
definitive host: human
intermediate host: cattle
What is the infectious form of Strongyloides stercoralis?
filariform larva
What is the infectious form of Trichuris trichiura?
embryonated egg
Which form of Taenia saginata is infectious for humans?
cysticercus (in beef)
Is autoreinfection possible in Ascaris lumbricoides infection? If yes, when?
No, the eggs must mature in the soil for several days to become infectious
Is autoreinfection possible in Strongyloide stercoralis infection? If yes, when?
yes, in immunosuppression (for example: AIDS)
Is autoreinfection possible in Enterobius vermicularis infection? If yes, when?
yes, the eggs become infectious in a few hours, and ab ano ad os autoinfection may
occur (especially in children)