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134 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the most common cause of hind limb lameness in the dog?
cranial cruciate ligament rupture
What movements does the stifle have in the following planes?
X = flexion/extension
Y = axial rotation
Z = translation
What are the functions of the CCL?
1 - limits cranial translation of the tibia with respect to the femur
2 - prevents hyperextension of the stifle
3 - limits internal rotation of the tibia
4 - SOME varus and valgus support to the flexed stifle
What is a typical signalment of a CCL rupture?
higher incidence in females (esp spayed because they are heavier), active, large breeds, straight legged breeds
What is the etiology of a CCL rupture?
1 - acute trauma
2 - chronic degenerative changes
3 - conformation
What type of acute trauma in dogs commonly causes a CCL rupture?
avulsion in young dogs
-typically failure of the tibial attachment site
What type of conformational changes predispose a dog to getting a CCL rupture?
1 - postural arthrosis = inflammatory reaction in the joint because of abnormal carriage
2 - stifle hyperextension - straight rear limbs
3 - femoral and tibial conformation
4 - obesity
What type of conformational changes specific to the femur predispose a dog to getting a CCL rupture?
narrowing of intercondylar notch
What type of conformational changes specific to the tibia predispose a dog to getting a CCL rupture?
-internal rotation
- abnormal slope of TPA (increased TPA puts stress on the ligament
What CS are seen with an acute CCL tear?
sudden onset of non-weight bearing lameness followed by improvement

*May not improve if there is concurrent meniscal injury
What CS are seen with a chronic CCL tear?
prolonged weight-bearing lameness

-difficulty rising and sitting
-sit with affected limb out to the side of the body
What CS are seen with a partial CCL tear?
-mild weight bearing lameness associated with exercise
-may resolve with rest
-may last for months
What must you differentiate a bilater CCL tear from?
neuro injury
What three techniques can you use to help diagnose a CCL injury?

What other two tests are SPECIFIC for CCL?
-imaging --> radiographs, MRI, US
-arthroscopy
-arthrocentesis

cranial drawer motion and tibial compression test
What are physical exam findings with a CCL injury?
1 - joint effusion
2- medial buttress
3 - periarticular fibrosis
4 - posture during sitting and standing
5 - crepitus
6 - atrophy is chronic
What positions do you perform the cranial drawer motion?

What is normal cranial drawer?
extension
standing angle - 135
90 flexion

-normal is 0-2mm and may need sedation or anesthesia to perform
When may it be difficult to elicit a cranial drawer motion?

When might a cranial drawer of 4-5 mm of movement be normal?
hard if there is periarticular fibrosis

-4-5 mm of movement is normal in immature dogs
How many bands does the CCL have and how are they when they are in extension and flecion?
two bands

- Craniomedial band = taught in extension AND in flexion

Caudolateral band = taught in extension and Relaxed in flexion
What is the difference when telling apart a CCL partial or complete tear?

How long does it usually take a partial tear to progress to a complete?
partial = no cranial drawer in extension , drawer in flexion

complete = drawer in extension and flexion


- about 1 year
What contracts with the cranial tibial thrust?
the gastrocnemius muscle when the hock is flexed
-must be in 135 deg. in lateral recumbency
What is felt on a tibial compression test in a CCL-deficient stifle?
cranial advancement of the tibial crest as the hock is flexed
On radiographs, where do osteophytes develop with CCL teat?

What is seen with joint effusion?
-trochlear ridge
-caudal tibial plateau
-distal pole of patella

- cranial compression of the fat pad
Other than osteophytes and joint effusion, what 4 other things might you find on a radiograph of a CCL rupture?
1 - articular cartilage degeneration
2 - capsular fibrosis
3 - subchondral sclerosis
4 - thickening of medial fibrous joint capsule
When is arthrocentesis indicated in a CCL tear?
if joint palpation and rads are inconclusive
What is considered a non-inflammatory arthropathy?

What should you consider if you find a 2-3 fold increase in cell numbers?
WBC < 5,000/mm3


-consider a partial tear (6,000-9,000 WBC_
What type of synovitis is seen on an arthrocentesis in an animal with a CCL tear?
lymphoplasmacytic
with increased volume of synovial fluid
Elevated collagenase and anticollagen antibodies and immune complexes are often found on arthrocentesis in an animal with a CCL tear. What makes collagenase and what is it inhibited by?
cartilage cells
doxycycline
When is conservative treatment recommended for a CCL tear and what is it?
-dogs <15 kg and cats

- lameness often resolves in 6 weeks
-cage rest, PT, anti-inflammatory pain meds
What are the goals of CCL surgery?
1- remove damaged and abnormal tissue - cruciate and meniscus
2 - stability for periarticular fibrosis or functional stability
3 - retard or prevent severe DJD
What 3 techniques can a surgeon choose from for a CCL repair?
1 - primary repair of the ligament
2 - reconstruction/substitution of the ligament
3 - stabilization of the joint
What is the success rate of CCL surgery regardless of the procedure?
90%
Primary repair of an avulsion of a CCL is mainly done in patients less than 1 year old. Where is the more frequent site of failure?
tibial plateau insertion
What are the 3 categories of surgeries for a CCL?
-intracapsular
-extracapsular
-osteotomies
What are the 3 types of osetotomies used for CCL rupture repair?

- biomechanical stabilization to stop tibial thrust movement
1 - TPLO
2 - Tibial wedge osteotomy
3 - tibial tuberosity advancement
What type of autogenous tissue is typically used for intracapsular repair of a CCL?
fascia lata
(patellar ligament)
What are main disadvantages to using an intracapsular CCL repair technique?
1 - extensive tissue trauma
2- injury to the caudal cruciate
3 - relative technical difficulty and extended surgical time
4 - tendency of graft to stretch and fail - avascular necrosis
What technique is most often used with extracapsular technique?

What is important with this tech?
Lateral fabellar-tibial suture

isometry - isometric points --> maintain equal distance or tension throughout the range of motion
What are common origin and insertion points for the lateral fabellar-tibial suture?

What type of needles facilitate easy passage of the suture?
origin - *lateral fabella (bone anchors are also used in the distal femur)

insertion - *tibial crest (hole is made 1 cm caudal to the tibial tuberosity)
--> (also cranial prominance of the extensor groove for the long digital extensor)

-J needles
True or False. No attempt is made to reconstruct or mimic the action of the CCL with osteotomies?
TRUE --> stifle stabilization is dependent on active restraint
What type of forces does the TPLO neutralize?
tibiofemoral shear forces
When measuring for a TPLO, what is considered the functional axis of the tibia?
intercondylar eminences and center of tarsal joint
What is the ultimate aim of a TPLO and what is the ideal TPA?
Aim = to reduce the TPA such that the cranial tibial thrust changes from a cranioproximal direction to a neutral or caudal direction (CTT should be gone after surgery)

Ideal TPA is 5-7 degrees --> over rotation would put excessive starin on the caudal cruciate ligament
After a TPLO, what is thrust controlled by?
caudal cruciate and active stifle contraints - Quads
What type of osteotomy may be beneficial in immature dogs?
tibial wedge osteotomy

lower osteotomy and not affecting growth plates.
What is the aim of a tibial tuberosity advancement?
to eliminate CTT
to eliminate tibiofemoral shear force during weight bearing
In what location is the patellar tendon angled with a Tibial tuberosity advancement?
perpendicular to the slope of the tibial plateau
Which procedure affects joint congruency - a TTA or a TPLO?

What does each procedure put strain on?
TPLO

TTA - more strain on caudal cruciate

TPLO - more strain on patellar ligament
What is the function of the craudal cruciate ligament?
-prevents caudal translation of the tibia during flexion
-provides rotational stability in flexion and varus-valgus stabiity in extension
What type of options for surgery are there with repairing a caudal cruciate ligament?
- bilateral extracapsular sutures
-redirecting medial collateral ligament
-popliteal tendon tenodesis
What type of meniscal injury is most common and why?
-medial meniscal injury

-has a firm attachment to the tibial plateau and is often wedged between the medial femoral condyle and tibial plateau
Does the medial meniscus have a femoral attachement/

The lateral?
no

yes
What is the typical history of a dog with a meniscal injury?
-acute lameness followed by improvement (initial CCL rupture) with worsening lameness after initial improvement --> meniscal damage
How often are meniscal tears seen with a CCL rupture and what is the most common type?
50-75%

long. tear in the caudal body (bucket-handle tear)
When is a meniscal release done?
to preserve grossly normal menisci and prevent injury
What percentage of dogs that rupture a CCL will rupture the other one within 2 years?

What results regardless of the treatment?
30-40%

-increases to 60% if there are already radiographic changes in the uninjured leg

-osteoarthritis
What must you give to the animal if you are to put in an orthopedic implant?
antibiotics
What must you be careful of during extracapsular surgery to repair the CCL?
peroneal nerve (lateral and caudal to stifle)
What must you be careful of during a TPLO to repair the CCL?
popliteal artery and vein - just caudal to the tibia proximally

-also medial saphenous vein when inserting distal jig pin
How long do animals with osteotomies need to be restricted of exercise?
8-12 weeks
Where does the patella normally sit?
in the femoral trochlea
What is the patella held in place by?
-lateral fascia lata and medial femoral fascia
-medial and lateral retinaculum
What is medial patellar luxation often associated with?
femoral and tibial deformitis
What happens if there is medial malalignment of the quadriceps?
-increased pressure on the distal medial physis and decreased pressure on the distal lateral physis
-lateral bowing of distal femur
What is needed for normal development of the trochlear groove?
articulation of the patella within the groove
What type of tibial abnormalities can aid in medial patellar luxation?
-medial displacement of tibial tuberosity
-medial bowing (varus) of proximal tibia
-lateral torsion of distal tibia
What is the most common breed to have medial patellar luxation?
miniature and toy breeds
-Min and toy poodles, yorkshire terrier, pomeranian, pekingese, chihuahua, boston terrier

-females more at risk
What percentage of luxations are medial in dogs?
75-80%

-also more common in large breed dogs, but a higher percentage of lateral luxation in large breeds
What percentage of medial patellar luxations are bilateral and what percentage have concurrent CCL rupture?
20-25% are bilateral

-15-20% have concurrent CCL rupture
How many grades of there of medial patellar luxation?
Grade 0 - Grade 4
What grade is the following: the patella is found (at least once) spontaneously luxated with the animal in a standing position, or is permanently luxated but can be repositioned manually or by manipulating the limbb. Rotation of the tibial tuberoity 30-60degrees.
Grade 3
What is the difference in CS of a grade 2 and 3 MPL?
2 - occasional skipping, but use the limb normally most of the time

3 - occassional skip to weight-bearing lameness
What are 6 differentials for MPL?
1 - avascular necrosis of the femoral head
2 - coxofemoral luxation
3 - ligamentous strain
4 - CCL rupture
5 - muscle strain
6 - hip dysplasia
When should you consider surgical treatment for medial patellar luxation
-lameness or active growth plates

- consider bone reconstruction or soft tissue reconstruction
What are the 4 basic techniques for MPL surgery?
1 - Tibial tuberosity transposition (TTT)
2 - Trochlear Groove deepening (Wedge recession, Block recession are used most commonly)
3 - Medial Retinacular Release
4 - Lateral Retinacular Imbrication
What is the basic point of the tibial tuberosity transposition?
-realigns extensor mechanism
-repositions the patella within the trochlear groove
When doing a tibial tuberosity transposition why do you make an osteotomy of the tibial crest?
that is the insertion of the patellar ligament

-make a transposition of the bone fragment and fixation of the bone fragment with kirschner wires or a tension band (medially)
When performing a trochlear wedge recession and removing a V-shaped wedge, what must the wedge include? Where do you widen the defect?
wedge must include the sulcus
-widen the defect on the side of the luxation and remove subchondral bone from the wedge
What are the benefits of a trochlear block recession?
- increased depth of proximal sulcus
-increased patellar articular contact
-greater resistance to luxation when stifle extended
-recesses a larger percentage of trochlear surface area
What type of procedure is the trochlear sulcoplasty and chondroplasty?
-trochlear groove deepening
What animals can you use a trochlear sulcoplasty on and what do you remove articular cartilage and subchondral bone with?
small
rongerus
What is another name for a trochlear chondroplasty and what age dogs is it best on?
What is the idea behind this?
"Cartilage Flap"
-best on young dogs <5 months old (up to 10 months)

- remove subchondral bone and press cartilage flap back into place
What are "OTHER" surgical techniques used for a MPL?
1 - femoral and tibial osteotomy
2 antirotational sutures
3 - quadriceps release
4 - transposition of origin of rectus femoris
5 - transplantation of the cranial head of the sartorius muscle
6 - total patellectomy
What type of grade MPL is a quadricpes release used on?
and in what conditions?
3 and 4
-severe misalignment of quadriceps
With a sartorius transplantation used to correct a MPL, how is the CRANIAL head transplanted?

-What does this result in?
cranial head is transplanted craniolaterally

-decreases medial traction on the patella
When would you use a total patellectomy?
patellar erosion is severe
-other techniques have failed
How is a rectus femoris transposition preformed when correcting a MPL?
-origin is detached from pelvis
-passed thru a tunnel in vastus lateralis
-reattached to greater trochanter
What grades of MPL have a good prognosis?
up to and including grade 3
-successful in over 90% of all cases
-50% recurrence of grade 1 luxations, but do not need surgery
What advice to owners of breeding dogs would you give if you diagnosed a MPL?
don't breed
What must you also do with a MPL other than deeping the groove?
realign the quads
What is the most common cause of treatment failure with a MPL?
neglecting to transpose the tibial tuberosity
Hip Joint laxity/instability leads to what?
poor joint congruence (subluxation), and abnormal hip development
Progressive Degeneration leading to canine hip dysplasia consists of what?
-periarticular osteophyte formation
-deformation of the cartilagious femoral head and acetabulum
-structural and biochemical changes in cartilage
What 3 factors lead to hip dysplasia?
genetic --> polygenic (20-60% heritable)
nutritional
environemntal
What affects growth rate and can cause overloading of soft tissue support and thus hip dysplasia?
high planes of nutrition --> rapid bone growth and weight gain
What may excess synovial fluid lead to?
increased joint laxity and surface tension and hydrostatic pressure --> HD
What does a low dietary anion gap result in?
less subluxation (affects synovial fluid volume)
How does excess dietary Calcium lead to HD?
1 - increased calcitonin
2 - decreased osteoclast activity and remodeling
3 - decreased hip and cartilage maturation
Other than Calcium, what 3 nutrients may aid in the formation of HD?
1 - Vitamin C --> increases Calcium retention
2 - Vitamin D -- >increases Calcium
3 - Protein
Does exercise change the development of hip dysplasia?
no
Do growth plates close earlier or later with over fed dogs?
earlier
What is the age distribution of dogs with hip dysplasia?
bimodal
3-12 monts
> 3years
What are typical CS in young dogs with hip dysplasia?
acute lameness with coxofemoral laxity
-bunny hopping gait
-hard time climbing stairs
-hard time rising
-UNUSUAL to have non-weight bearing lameness
What are DD for young dogs with HD?
1 - HOD
2 - panosteitis
3 - OCD
4 - Physeal fractures
5 - CCL rupture
What are DD for mature dogs with HD?
1 - LS Disease
2 - Discospondylitis
3 - IVDD
4 - degenerative myelopathy
5 - polyarthritis
6 - CCL rupture
7 - bone neoplasia
What type of test is done in young patients to shoe evidence of HD?
Ortalanit Test

- subluxation
-abduction
- reduction
What are key PE findings of dogs with HD?
- crepitus and pain on flexion and extension of the hip
-muscle atrophy
-swaying gait
- base -narrow stance
-short, stiff stride
What views should you use to evaluate for HD radiographically?
1 - hip extended view (OFA)
2 - Distraction View (PennHIP)
What is considered hip dysplasia on a hip extended view?
coverage of <50-60% of the femoral head by the dorsal acetabular rim
What is the hip extended view good for? (OFA)
DJD
-moderate for laxity

-poor repeatability
-gets better with age
What are the 7 points of the OFA scoring system?
normal: fair, good, excellent
borderline
dysplastic: mild, moderate, severe
What does the OFA assess hip joints for?
- degernerative OA
-congrucence: Wilberg angle and percent coverage
What age must dogs be in order to be reviewed by OFA?
>2
What are the major concerns with OFA?
- subjective scoring, based on unnatural position for dogs
-Not sensitive to detect early/mild laxity
-incidence of HD still high in population
What 3 views are used for Penn HIP?
-hip extended
- compression
-distraction --> distraction indices are obtained and compared to breed standards

- need sedation
Why is Penn HIP better for detecting HD?
- excellent for hip laxity - more objective
-excellent repeatability of method and interpretation
-reliable predictability and consistency from 4 months of age

- ONLY thing is that is is only moderate for DJD (compared to OFA)
What do the following numbers mean with the PennHIP distraction index?
0
1
0.5

What type of laxity does it measure?
0 - fully congruent joint
1 - luxated joint
0.5 - 50% subluxation

- measures passive laxity
What distraction index is considered disease suseptible?
>0.3
-but some breeds are more laxity tolerant
How much more sensitive is pennhip than the hip extended view?
2.5x
Acetabular rotation is done on immature patients with HD and no osteoarthritis? What are these 2 procedures called?
1 - pubic symphysiodesis
2 - triple pelvic osteotomy
What are the 2 salvage procedures done for HD?
1 - total hip replacement
2 - femoral head and neck ostectomy
What are the 3 focus areas for conservative management for HD?
1 - PT
2 - medical
3 - nutritional
What are NSAIDS you can give to a dog with HD?
carprofen, etogesic, deracoxib, aspirin
What are glycosaminoglycans you can give to a dog with HD?
- adequan, cosequin

- good for immature dogs, but not for adult dogs with DJD
When is a juvenile pubic symphysiodesis done and what type of procedure is it?
- done at 4-5 months of age (better if earlier)
- preventative procedure that induces pubic bone physeal closure (therefore needs open physes)
A juvenile pubic symphysiodesis causes closure of the pubic bone, but continued growth of what?

What does this result in?
ilium and ischium
--> this results in a ventrolateral rotation of the acetabulum (15 degrees)

- results in increased hip coverage and decreased hip laxity
What type of procedure is a triple pelvic osteotomy?
-preventative
What are the indications for a triple pelvic osteotomy?
-clinical signs
-improve coxofemoral joint congruity
-young dog
-min to no degenerative changes
What are complications to a triple pelvic osteotomy?
-pelvic canal narrowing --> constipation
- urethral injury
-implant failure/infection
- sciatic or internal obturator nerve damage
-over rotation
-progression of DJD
What is the success rate of tripple pelvic osteotomy?
72--92%
What type of procedure is an FHO for HD?
salvage to relieve pain
What is important in aftercare for FHO?
-early, active use of the limb --> PT (PROM exercises)
-swimming and leash activity
What is the prognosis for a FHO?
-depends on post-op rehab, activity of dog, muscle atrophy
-up to 83% satisfactory outcome
What are complications to a total hip replacement?
1 - luxation
2 - infection
3 - aseptic loosening of implants
4- implant failure
5 - fracture of femoral shaft
6 - sciatic nerve injury
7 - sarcoma
What is the prognosis for a total hip replacement?
91-95% excellent to good
-can return to normal function