3Rd Term A&p

Front 1

Name the parts of alimentary canal.

Back 1

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

Front 2

Name accessory digestive organs.

Back 2

teeth, tongue, gallbladder, and a number of large digestive glands- salivary glands, liver and pancreas.

Front 3

Describe 6 essential digestive processes. Where does each of them take place?

Back 3

1. Ingestion- taking food into the digestive tract.
2. Propulsion- mosves food through the alimentary canal.
3. Mechanical digestion- physically prepares food for chemical digestion by enzymes.
4. chemical digestion- a series of catabolic steps which complex food molecules are broken down to their chemical building blocks by enzymes secreted into the lumen of the alimentary canal.
5. Absorbtion- the passage of digested end products from the lumen of the GI tract to the mucosal cells.
6. Defecation- eliminates indigestible substances from the body via the anus in the form of feces.

Front 4

Compare the difference between peristalsis and segmentation.

Back 4

peristalsis the major means of propulsion, involves alternate waves of contraction and relaxation of muscles in the organ wall.
segmentation mixes food with digestive juices and increases the efficiency of absorption by repeatedly moving different parts of the food mass over the intestinal wall.

Front 5

Describe the intrinsic and extrinsic control involved in regulation of digestion?
Explain the short reflexes and long reflexes.

Back 5

intrinsic is an "in-house" nerve plexuses or hormone producing cells. resulting in two kinds of relex activity:
short reflexes are mdiated entirely by the local plexuses in response to GI tract stimuli.
Long reflexes are initiated by stimuli arising inside or outside the GI tract and involve CNScenters and extrinsic autonomic nerves.

Front 6

Define mesentery and describe the processes of its formation. Give examples of
peritoneal (intraperitoneal) organs and retroperitoneal organs.

Back 6

mesentery- is a double layer of pertoneum a sheet of two serous membranes fused back to back that extends to the digestive organs from the body wall.
Digestive organs that keep their mesentery and remain in the peritoneal cavity are called intraperitoneal and peritoneal organs.

Front 7

Describe the 4 tunics which form the wall of the GI tract.

Back 7

cardiac region, fundus, body, pyloric region

Front 8

What is the enteric nervous system? Describe its functions.

Back 8

The principal components of the enteric nervous system are two networks or plexuses of neurons, both of which are embedded in the wall of the digestive tract and extend from esophagus to anus

Front 9

Proteins are digested by various enzymatic reactions into smaller subunits called:

Back 9

amino acids

Front 10

Which of the following is not considered a primary digestive structure?
a) jejunum b) pharynx c) sigmoid colon d) liver e) oral cavity

Back 10

d

Front 11

Name three types of papillae on the surface of the tongue

Back 11

filiform papillae- give the tongue surgace a roughness that aids in licking semisolid foods
circumvallate papillae- are located in a v-shaped row at the back of the tongue
foliate papilae- are located on the lateral aspects of the posterior tongue

Front 12

Name three pairs of extrinsic salivary glands.

Back 12

parotid,submandibular, sublingual

Front 13

Describe the functions and makeups of saliva.

Back 13

saliva is largely water and slightly acidic. thick mucus that lubricates the oral cavity and hydrates food and help food to pass into the esophagus

Front 14

Describe the control of salivation.

Back 14

salivation is controlled primarily by the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

Front 15

What is the funciton of salivary amylase?

Back 15

Initiates the digestion of carbohydrates

Front 16

Of the following statements, which best describes the parotid salivary gland?
a. an exocrine gland possessing multiple ducts b) forms a thin protective barrier within the stomach c) externally located along the inferior border of the mandible
d) serves as a chemical messenger from g-cells e) a protein that makes saliva slippery

Back 16

c

Front 17

the three pharyngeal constrictor muscles (superior, middle, and inferior) are necessary for:

Back 17

initiating the swallowing process

Front 18

Which histological layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains lymphatic tissue (MALT)?

Back 18

submucosa

Front 19

the glandular secretions within the stomach are controlled by the

Back 19

submucosal nerve plexus

Front 20

which of the following statements is false regarding the esophagus:
a) the process of mechanical digestion continues withing this muscular tube b) a muscular tube between the pharynx with the stomach c) peristalic contractions propel material down tube d) anatomically located posterior to the trachea e) attached to the posterior thoracic wall by connective tissue

Back 20

a

Front 21

a double layer of peritoneum associated with the abdominal viscera

Back 21

mesentery

Front 22

the internal surface area of the stomach is increased by the presence of

Back 22

rugae

Front 23

the end product of chemical and mechanical digestion within the stomach

Back 23

chyme

Front 24

the hormones secretin and cholecystokinin are released from

Back 24

intestinal epithelium

Front 25

what is the action of the hormone secretin

Back 25

inhibits glandular secretions of the stomach

Front 26

the inactive digestive enzyme pepsinogen is secreted by

Back 26

chief cells

Front 27

during the cephalic phase, which structure carries excitatory nerve impulses towards the stomcah

Back 27

vagus nerve (x)

Front 28

this portion of the digestive tract is retoperitoneal and only 12 in in length

Back 28

duodenum

Front 29

the hepatopancreatic ampulla results from the union of the

Back 29

common bile duct and pancreatic duct

Front 30

describe the functions of intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue

Back 30

the intrinsic muscles are confined in the tongue and are not attached to bone and are needed for speech and swallowing. Teh extrinsic muscles alter the tongues postion; they protrude it, retract it, and move it from side to side.

Front 31

descibe the classification of teeth. Explain dental formula for deciduous and permanent teeth

Back 31

teeth are classified according to their shape and function as incisors, canines, premolars, and molars. dental formula is shorthand way of indicating the numbers and relative positions of the different types of teeth in the mouth.

Front 32

describe the structure of crown and root of the tooth. revisist the gomphosis joint.

Back 32

the portion of the tooth imbeded in the bone is the root. the enamel covered crown is the exposed part fo the tooth above the gingiva.
the ligament anchoring the tooth in the bony alveolus of the jaw forming a fibrous joint called a gomphosis.

Front 33

describe the structure and functions of the pharynx.

Back 33

common passage way for air, liquids, and solids. Non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. Swallowing begins here.
divided into the following: nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx

Front 34

describe the change of position of the soft palate during swallowing.

Back 34

the soft palate rises to close off the nasopharynx

Front 35

compare the muscle types in different part of the esophagus ( from superior to inferior)

Back 35

the wall of the superior end of the esophagus is compsed of skeletal muscle while the inferior half is compsed of smooth mucsle fibers. A transition of epithelium from non-keratinized stratified squamous to simple columnar as this tube extends from the pharynx to the stomach

Front 36

Explain the digestive process in the mouth

Back 36

mechanical digestion is accomplished by the closure of the lower jaw, the temporalis and masseter muscles and sided to side motion provided by the internal and external pterygoid muscles. Release of salivary amylase from the salivary glands begins the process of chemical digestion and the breakdown of carbohydrates.

Front 37

Identify different parts of stomach-cardiac region, fundus, body, pyloric region,
lesser curvature, and greater curvature.

Back 37

The cardiac sphincter seals the cardiac end of the somach. Pyloric sphincter regulates the stomach contents into the duodenum. fundus is the dome-shaped part tucked beneath the diaphargm.

Front 38

Describe the locations of greater omentum and lesser omentum.

Back 38

the lesser omentum runs from the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach where it becomes sontinuous with the visceral peritoneum convering the stomach. the greater omentum drapes inferiorly from the greater curvature of the stomach to cover the coils of the small intestine.

Front 39

Describe the blood supply of the stomach.

Back 39

myenteric nerve plexus located between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers. controls peristaltic activity of smooth muscle along the GI tract. submucosal nerve plexus located within the ct of the submucosal layer. regulates glandular secretions. both plexuses operate under the control of the ans.

Front 40

Describe the muscular arrangements of stomach wall.

Back 40

the stomach is covered in three muscle layers: from outermost the longitudinal layer, circular layer, and oblique layer. The additional oblique layer to the stomach helps to not only move food forward but in the process of churning and breaking it down into smaller pieces.

Front 41

Name 4 different secretory cells and describe their functions.

Back 41

Neck cells- mucus, bicarb ion
Parietal cells- HCL
Chief cells- pepsinogen
Enteroendocrine cells (G-cells)- gastrin

Front 42

List four factors create mucosal barrier of stomach, and describe its importance.

Back 42

1. thick coating of bicarb rich mucus is built up on the stomach wall.
2. the epeithelial cells of the mucosa are joined together by tight junctions that prevent gastric juice from leaking into the underlying tissue layers.
3. damagaed epithelial mucosal cells are shed and quickly replaced.
4. the stomach surface epithelium is completely renewed every three to six days.

Front 43

Describe excitatory and inhibitory events in cephalic, gastric, and intestinal
phases of gastric secretion.

Back 43

Cephalic Phase Action potentials from the medulla reach the gastric glands by the vagus nerve (X), the parasympathetic division of the ANS. The release of neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) triggers the cells of the gastric glands to manufacture and release their cellular products.
Gastric Phase The primary stimulus is the distension of the stomach wall; the activation of stretch receptors initiates both local enteric reflexes and vagal reflexes. Both result in an increase in the release of gastric juices.
Intestinal Phase The presence of acidic chyme in the duodenum initiates both neural (enteric nervous system) and hormonal responses which inhibit gastric secretions (negative feedback). The acidic chyme within the intestine causes the release of the hormone secretin from the intestinal epithelium. Secretin inhibits the activity of chief and parietal cells. The presence of fatty acids and lipids also triggers the release of the hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) which also inhibits gastric activity.

Front 44

Describe the regulation of gastric emptying.

Back 44

The rate of gastric emptying depends on the contents of the duodenum and usually empties within four hours after a meal.

Front 45

Describe the lobes and ligament of the liver.

Back 45

lobes: R,L, caudate, and quadrate. Held in place by the falciform lig. which attaches to the anterior abdomianl wall and the triangular ligaments which attach to the overlying diaphragm. The round lig. a remnant of the fetal umbilical vein is present on the posterior surface.

Front 46

Describe the anatomical relationship between the liver and the gallbladder.

Back 46

the gallbladder merges with the common hepatic duct and forms the common bile duct. Bile salt (cholic acid) is the key component in the emulsification of fats

Front 47

Describe the microscopic structure of the liver? Name the components of portal
triads.

Back 47

Composed of liver lobules that are six sided structure composed of ct which surrounds a central vein with radiating plates of hepatocytes and liver sinusoids. in each corner is a hepatic triad: hepatic arteriole, venule and bile duct.

Front 48

Describe the functions of hepatocytes.

Back 48

Liver sinusoids are extremely leaky vessels receive incoming blood from the hepatic portal system. Sinusoid function is to filter blood through hepatocytes prior to entering the central vein.

Front 49

Describe the compositions and functions of bile.

Back 49

Bile is a yellow-green, alkaline solution containing bile salts,pigments,cholesterol,triglycerides,phospholipids, and a variety of electrolytes. Only bile salts and phospholipids aid the digestive process.

Front 50

Explain the chemical and neural regulations of bile release, and list the functions
of cholecystokinin.

Back 50

when no digestion is occurring the hepatopancreatic sphincter is closed and the released bile backs up the cystic duct into the gallbladder where it is stored until needed. The major stimulus for gb contraction is CCK an intestinal hormone released to the blood when acidic fatty chyme enters the duodenum.

Front 51

List the exocrine functions of pancreas.

Back 51

pancreatic juice drains the pancreas via the main pancreatic duct.

Front 52

Describe the composition of pancreatic juice. Explain the functions of trypsinogen
and procarboxypeptidase in digestion.

Back 52

clear pancreatic juice is prodcued daily about 1200 to 15oo ml. consists mainly of water and contains enzymes and electrolytes. Trypsinogen is activated to trypsin by enteropeptidase an intestinal brush border protease. Trypsin activates 2 other pancreatic preteases carboxypeptidase and chymotrypsinogen to their active forms, carboxypeptidase and chymotrypsin.

Front 53

Name different divisions of small intestine.

Back 53

three subdivisions are the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.

Front 54

Define plicae, villi and microvilli.

Back 54

plicae, villi and microvilli are are space saving folds that help to absorption

Front 55

which adaptation which increases surface area is directly associated with the cell?

Back 55

microvilli

Front 56

the release of bicarbonate ions (HCO3) to neuralize the acidic chyme H+ originates from the

Back 56

duodenal (brunner's) glands

Front 57

this lymphatic tissue is located within the submucosa of the small intestine

Back 57

Peyer's patches

Front 58

Which subdivision of the large intestine is retroperitoneal?

Back 58

Descending colon

Front 59

The teniae coli are best described as:

Back 59

Three discrete bands of longitudinal muscle within the muscularis layer of the large intestine.

Front 60

The defecation reflex is triggered by?

Back 60

Strech (distension) of the rectal wall

Front 61

Which chemical messenger is responsible for the release of pancreatic digestive enzymes?

Back 61

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

Front 62

The syntheses of pancreatic digestive enzymes occurs within:

Back 62

Pancreatic acini cells

Front 63

The activation of non-functional proteolytic digestive enzymes is accomplished by:

Back 63

Brush border enzymes

Front 64

This structure is a remnant of the fetal umbilical vein

Back 64

round ligament

Front 65

Synthesis of digestive enzymes is a function of the liver? True or False

Back 65

False

Front 66

This vessel is responsible for the drainage of each individual liver lobule.

Back 66

Central vein

Front 67

Drainage of the sigmoid colon is accomplished by the

Back 67

Inferior mesenteric vein

Front 68

The process of gas exchange across the respiratory membrane is called:

Back 68

External respiration

Front 69

Of the following structures, which is not part of the upper respiratory tract?

Back 69

Larynx

Front 70

What is an essential function of the nasal cavity?

Back 70

The nasal cavity is essential in reducing the weight of the skull

Front 71

The paired vocal ligaments extend from the thyroid carilage to the

Back 71

Arytenoid cartilages

Front 72

Which of the following statements is false regarding the trachea?
a) the mucosa of the trachea is pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium b) the trachealis muscle is associated with each C-shaped cartilage c) Anatomically the trachea is located anterior to the esophagus d) The solid circular rings of the trachea are composed of elastic cartilage e) Distally the trachea bifurcates into the right and left bronchus

Back 72

d

Front 73

The bronchioles

Back 73

Are respiratory passages with walls composed of smooth muscle

Front 74

What is the function of surfactant?

Back 74

Reduces the surface tension of water vapor withing the alveolus

Front 75

The tertiary bronchi will enter the:

Back 75

Bronchopulmonary segments

Front 76

The separation of the nasal and oral cavities is accomplished by?

Back 76

Hard and soft palate

Front 77

The sensory receptors for olfaction are embedded in the mucosa of the

Back 77

Superior nasal conchae

Front 78

Which statement is false regarding the carina?
a) Located distally along the trachea b) the secondary bronchi extend from the carina c) The bifurcation of the trachea occurs here d) will give a goose the ability fo "honk" e) a strong cough reflex is associated with the carina mucosa

Back 78

b

Front 79

The function of the epiglottis

Back 79

seal the laryngeal opening during swallowing

Front 80

How many secondary bronchi are associated with the Right lung?

Back 80

three

Front 81

The olfactory sensory receptors from the olfactory bulb gain access to the nasal cavity through:

Back 81

the cribriform plate

Front 82

The kidneys are partially protected by ribs:

Back 82

11 and 12

Front 83

Which of the following structures is not retroperitoneal?
a) kidney b) duodenum c) pancreas d) transverse colon

Back 83

d

Front 84

The layer of adipose tissue that encloses each kidney serves as:

Back 84

protective covering against external forces

Front 85

The renal cortex contains approximately _____ % of all nephrons

Back 85

85%

Front 86

Which statement best describes the renal medulla?
a) a region of the kidney where the renal vessels and ureter enter b) an area of the kidney which contains the segmental vessels c) will contain both renal columns and renal pyramids d) the major and minor calyces are located here

Back 86

c

Front 87

The expanded portion of the ureter inisde the kidney is called the

Back 87

renal pelvis

Front 88

This structure drains each individual renal pyramid

Back 88

Minor calyx

Front 89

The movement of urine through the calyces and renal pelvis occurs by

Back 89

peristaltic contractions

Front 90

Blood is delivered to the kidneys at a rate of

Back 90

1200ml/min

Front 91

What is the correct sequence for arterial flow in the kidney

Back 91

abdominal aorta, renal, segmental, and interlobar

Front 92

the segmental vein empties into the

Back 92

Renal vein

Front 93

How many motor neurons are associated with the autonommic nervous system?

Back 93

2

Front 94

sympathetic nerve fibers reach the kidney through the

Back 94

celiac ganglion

Front 95

Postganglionic nerve fibers will innervate

Back 95

the smooth muscle of renal arterioles

Front 96

Name the endocrine gland associated with each kidney.

Back 96

ardenal gland

Front 97

Which of the structures is not part of the renal tubule?
a) Bowman's capsule b) Proximal convoluted tuble c) loop of henle d) collecting duct

Back 97

d

Front 98

The hydrostatic pressure withing the glomerulus is approximately

Back 98

55mmHg

Front 99

What type of capillary forms the glomerulus?

Back 99

Fenestrated

Front 100

The podocytes will form the

Back 100

visceral layer of bowman's capsule

Front 101

What will restict the movement of solutes across the filtraiton membrane?

Back 101

The size of the solute within the blood plasma

Front 102

The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) will reabsorb what percentage of water?

Back 102

65%

Front 103

Tubular secretion occurs primarily within the

Back 103

distal convoluted tubule

Front 104

The goal of renal function is to maintain a constant solute concentration within the tissues and plasma at

Back 104

300 mOsm

Front 105

The ascending limb of the loop of Henle

Back 105

Actively transports sodium chloride into the interstitial space of the medulla

Front 106

maintaining an osmotic gradient within the medulla is accomplished by

Back 106

The removal of water by the surrounding peritubular capillaries

Front 107

The hormone ADH is released from

Back 107

the posterior pituitary gland

Front 108

What is the action of ADH?

Back 108

Increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water

Front 109

The ingestion of either caffeine or alcohol will result in

Back 109

The prduction of a large volume of dilute urine

Front 110

Is a cardiac arrhythmis caused by an increase in Na+ in the blood?

Back 110

no

Front 111

The juxtaglomerular cells will release

Back 111

The enzyme renin

Front 112

Which of the following statements best describes metabolism?
a) the various endothermic chemical reactions used in the synthesis of new proteins b) the anaerobic reactions which occur in the cytosol of prokaryotes c) the digestion of macromolecules within eukaryotic cells d) the sum total of all biochemical reactions that occur within a cell

Back 112

d

Front 113

the preferred monosaccharide used during cellular respiration is

Back 113

glucose

Front 114

Chemical reactions that involve the break-down of polymers into monomers are called

Back 114

catabolic reactions

Front 115

Which of the following molecules is not a lipid?
a) phospholipid b) amlase c) triglyceride d) cholesterol

Back 115

b

Front 116

The release of stored potential energy in carbohydrates results from

Back 116

the breakage of covalent bonds

Front 117

A molecule which gains high energy electrons

Back 117

has been reduced

Front 118

The energy released from the break down of macromolecules is used in the synthesis of

Back 118

adenosine triphosphate

Front 119

The primary source for carbohydrates are

Back 119

The large macromolecules (starch) associated with plant tissue

Front 120

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) Proteins are essential in the formation hormoes and contractile proteins b) Lipids are a source of energy and the building blocks for enzymes c) carbohydrates represent a potential source of energy d) phospholipids are used in the construction of the cell membrane

Back 120

b

Front 121

Which of the following statements is false regarding glycolysis?
a) this ten step enzymatic process occurs within the cytoplasm b) glycolysis will only occur under aerobic conditions c) ATP is formed by substrate level phoshporylation d) 2 molecules of pyruvate are formed

Back 121

b

Front 122

Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
a) glucose b) sucrose c) fructose d) galactose

Back 122

b

Front 123

The addition of a phosphate group to glucose inside the hepatocyte

Back 123

changes the molecule, thus maintaining a glucose concentration gradient

Front 124

What is the function of NAD+?

Back 124

serves as an electron carrier

Front 125

In human muscle tissue, what is the consequence of operating under anaerobic conditions?

Back 125

the levels of lactic acid within the muscle cell increase

Front 126

What percentage of glucose is stored in muscle tissue as glycogen?

Back 126

75%

Front 127

Which cells of the pancreas are resposible of the release of glucagon?

Back 127

alpha cells

Front 128

The hormone insulin is necessary for

Back 128

the cellular uptake of blood glucose

Front 129

Which of the following statements is false regarding glycolysis?
a) this is a 10 step enzymatic process occurs within the cytoplasm b) ATP is formed by oxidatve phosphorylation c) glycolysis operates under anaerobic conditions d) 2 molecules of pyruvate are formed e) requires the assistance of an electron carrier (NAD+)

Back 129

b

Front 130

In the eukaryotic cell, where does the Krebs cycle occur?

Back 130

the matrix of the mitochondria

Front 131

Which of the following statements is false regarding the Krebs cycle?
a) Occurs within the matrix of the mitochondria b) will form ATP by oxidative phoshorylation c) requires a new electron carrier FAD+ d) completely oxidizes glucose into carbon dioxide e) an eight step enzymatic process

Back 131

b

Front 132

When a human muscle tissue is functioning under aerobic conditions, ther will be

Back 132

an increase in the conversion of glycogen into glucose

Front 133

A single glucose molecule when coompletely oxidized will yield how many ATP molecules

Back 133

38

Front 134

How many molecules of carbon dioxide are produced from the oxidation of a glucose molecule?

Back 134

6

Front 135

The amine group which is cleaved during protein metabolism is eliminated from the body as

Back 135

urea

Front 136

Essential amino acids are

Back 136

required for protein synthesis and must come from dietary sources

Front 137

the oxidation of a triglyceride begins with the formation of

Back 137

glycerol and fatty acids

Front 138

When ATP levels become too high in the cell; the two-carbon acetyl groups

Back 138

will enter into the synthesis of triglycerides as fatty acid chains

Front 139

Which of the following structures is not part of an amino acid?
a) central or alpha carbon b) amine group c) hydroxyl group d) carboxylic group e) variable R-group

Back 139

c

Front 140

The storage of glucose within the tissue cells is called

Back 140

glycogenesis

Front 141

The process of ATP synthesis relies on

Back 141

a flow of hydrogen ion (H+) from the outer compartment to the matrix through the ATP synthase complex

Front 142

The synthesis of ATP results from the

Back 142

the addition of a phosphate group from creatine kinase

Front 143

Carbohydrates are digested by various enzymatic reactions into this monomer

Back 143

glucose

Front 144

Which of the following is not an accessory digestive structure?
a) molars and premolars b) pharynx c) partotid salivary gland d) tongue c) gallbladder

Back 144

b

Front 145

What is the function of the chemical lysozyme found in saliva?

Back 145

Digestion of pathogens in oral cavity

Front 146

small intstine

Back 146

receives the chyme and continues the digestive process with the assistance of pancreatic secretions and bile

Front 147

the esophageal phase of swallowing

Back 147

Begins with the peristaltic contractions associated with the esophagus

Front 148

The muscular contractions within the stomach are controlled by the

Back 148

myenteric nerve plexus

Front 149

what structure forms the bulk of the tooth

Back 149

dentin

Front 150

This circular band of smooth muscle regulates the flow of chyme into small intestine

Back 150

pyloric sphincter

Front 151

The mucosal lining of the stomach is composed of

Back 151

simple columnar epithelium

Front 152

The end product of chemical and mechanical digestion within the stomach is

Back 152

chyme

Front 153

During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion, acetylcholine is released from

Back 153

post gaglionic neurons

Front 154

What triggers the release of the hormone secretin?

Back 154

Acidic chyme entering the duodenum

Front 155

The release of HCL is carried out by

Back 155

parietal cells

Front 156

During the cephalic phase, which structure carries excitatory nerve impulses towards the stomach?

Back 156

myenteric nerve plexus

Front 157

This portion fo the digestive tract is retroperitoneal

Back 157

ascending colon

Front 158

The common bile dut results from the union of the

Back 158

cystic duct and the common hepatic duct

Front 159

Which adaptation is designed to protect the lower digestive tract from pathogens?

Back 159

Peyer's patches

Front 160

The release of bicarbonate ions into the duodenum is necessary

Back 160

to create an alkaline environment that will allow digestive enzymes to funtion ( pH 7-8.0)

Front 161

The epiploic appendages are best describe as

Back 161

Fat fill puches attached to the visceral peritoneum

Front 162

Which chemical messenger is responsible for the release of pancreatic bicarbonate ions?

Back 162

Secretin

Front 163

The activation of non functional proteolytic digestive enzymes is accomplished by

Back 163

brush border enzymes

Front 164

This structure will attach the liver to the anterior abdominal wall

Back 164

falciform ligament

Front 165

This vessel is extremely "leaky within the liver lobule.

Back 165

Hepatic sinusoid

Front 166

Drainage of the small intestine is accomplished by

Back 166

the superior mesenteric vein

Front 167

The process inspiration and expiration is called

Back 167

pulmonary ventilation

Front 168

Of the following structures, which is not part of the lower respiratory tract?
a) trachea b) alveoli c) bronchiles d) pharynx e) larynx

Back 168

d

Front 169

What is a function of the para-nasal sinuses?

Back 169

Essential in weight reduction of the skull

Front 170

What statement best describes the trachea?

Back 170

an airway composed of c-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage

Front 171

The segmental or teriary bronchi

Back 171

have walls supported by numerous individual cartilage plates

Front 172

when there is an absence of surfactant produced by type 2 alveolar cells

Back 172

The hydrogen bonds between water molecules (vapor) are unbroken and surface tension remains

Front 173

Foreign material which enters the trachea will typically

Back 173

Enter the right primary bronchus since it has a larger opening

Front 174

The function of the larynx

Back 174

the source of vocalization in humans

Front 175

How many secondary bronchi are associated with the left lung?

Back 175

2

Front 176

The olfactory bulb of the olfactory nerve rests on the cribriform plate, which bone contains the cribriform plate?

Back 176

The ethmoid

Front 177

This portion of the lung is adjacent to clavicle

Back 177

apex

Front 178

The caridac notch will facilitate the

Back 178

ventricles

Front 179

Name the gas law which states that gas volume is inversely proportional to pressure ( V=1/P)

Back 179

Boyle's law

Front 180

Which of the following muscles is not required for "normal" pulmonary ventialtion?
a) diaphragm b) external intercostals c) scalenes d) abdominal group e) sternocleidomastoid

Back 180

d

Front 181

The exchange of gases across the repiratory membrane is possible becuase:

Back 181

a partial pressure gradient exists for both oxygen and carbon dioxide across the membrane

Front 182

Why is supplemental oxygen needed on Mt. Everest ( 29,028 ft. O2 x 253 mmHg= 35mmHg)

Back 182

A change in atmospheric pressure results in lower pO2 (35mmHg) in alveoli than pulmonary capillary (40mmHg)

Front 183

What percentage of oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin molecule?

Back 183

98%

Front 184

What is a condition will not facor the dissoiciation of oxygen from hemoglobin

Back 184

an increase in blood pH

Front 185

This waste product generated from cellular respiration contributes to the acidic conditions in the blood

Back 185

carbon dioxide

Front 186

In this chemical reaction CO2 + H2O ---> H2CO3
what enzyme is required?

Back 186

carbonic anhydrase

Front 187

Which statement is false regarding the dorsal respiratory group?
a) located within the medulla oblongata b) regulates normal tidal breathing c) neurons which initiate inspiration fire for approximately 2 seconds d) motor impulses from the DRG are carried by the phrenic nerve to the external intercostals e) The DRG can be modified when metabolic needs of the cells are not satisfied

Back 187

d

Front 188

What is the function of the Hering-Breuer reflex

Back 188

Limits the depth of inspiration thus eliminating the potential for tissue damage (alveoli)

Front 189

Central chemoreceptors are located

Back 189

Within the chemosensitive area (csa) of the medulla oblongata

Front 190

What will temporarily have a negative impact on respiratory rates?

Back 190

voluntary apnea

Front 191

The inability to remove excess carbon dioxide from the blood through respiration results in

Back 191

respiratory acidosis

Front 192

Which of the following structures is unique only to the right lung?

Back 192

Horizontal fissure

Front 193

How many heme groups are found within each hemoglobin molecule?

Back 193

4

Front 194

List the cells found in the epithelium of the mucosa in smal intestine. Describe the stimuli which trigger and release of intestinal juice from intestinal glands.

Back 194

Villi and microvilli are part of several modifications to the mucosa to increase the digestive and absorptive surface areas. Intestinal crypts (Crypts of Lieberkuhn) give the ability to replicate and repair.