3C2 2009

Front 1

Define an AFSC.

Back 1

An Air Force Specialty Code ia a logically grouped five-digit alphanumeric code that further classifies an AFS

Front 2

What are the five components that compose an AFSC?

Back 2

Career Group, Career Field, Career Field Subdivision, Skill level and Career Field Identifier.

Front 3

Name the three types of AFSC identifiers.

Back 3

Primary AFSC, Duty AFSC, and Control AFSC.

Front 4

What does the duty AFSC identify?

Back 4

The Authorized Manning Position to which you are assigned and reflect the job you are currently performing.

Front 5

What is the control AFSC used for?

Back 5

It is used by AFPC for assignment and training purposes. AFPC uses this speciality code to distribute Airmen resources by grade and skill according to the needs of the Air Force.

Front 6

Name the three AFSC modifiers.

Back 6

Prefix, Suffix, and Special Experience Identifiers.

Front 7

When should you be enrolled into your CDC course?

Back 7

You should be enrolled into a career development course (CDC) within 45 days of arriving at your new duty assignment.

Front 8

How long are retrainees placed in upgrade training before receiving a 5-skill level?

Back 8

A minimum of nine months in upgrade training.

Front 9

What is an AFJQS?

Back 9

An Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS) is a comprehensive task list that describes a particular job type or duty position.

Front 10

What is an AFQTP?

Back 10

An Air Force qualification training package (AFQTP) is an instructional course designed for use at the unit to qualify, or aid in qualifying, in a duty position, in a program, or on a piece of equipment.

Front 11

When should you be first interviewed by the unit training manager?

Back 11

Within the first 30 days of your duty assignment.

Front 12

State a few differences between a FSA and a CSA.

Back 12

Functional System Administrator (FSA) who will come up with solutions to network and network user related problems. FSA's communicate directly with local helpdesk personnel. FSA's will usually have several designated client system administrators (CSA), who assist the FSA with network user problems. CSA's try to solve network user problems first before asking the FSA for assistance.

Front 13

Which AFSC is responsible for loading software programs, files, and databases on to network servers and who also responds to trouble calls and console messages?

Back 13

C-CS Operators (3C0X1)

Front 14

Which AFSC is responsible for configuring antennas and radio equipment for efficient field
operations, while establishing and maintaining communications links with distant.stations?

Back 14

Radio Communications System Personnel (3C1X1)

Front 15

Which AFSC is responsible for coordinating plans for acquiring, funding, testing, and certifying
new communications systems?

Back 15

C-CS Planning and Implementation Personnel (3C3X1)

Front 16

Name the three AFSC modifiers.

Back 16

Prefix, Suffix, and Special Experience Identifiers.

Front 17

When should you be enrolled into your CDC course?

Back 17

You should be enrolled into a career development course (CDC) within 45 days of arriving at your new duty assignment.

Front 18

How long are retrainees placed in upgrade training before receiving a 5-skill level?

Back 18

A minimum of nine months in upgrade training.

Front 19

What is an AFJQS?

Back 19

An Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS) is a comprehensive task list that describes a particular job type or duty position.

Front 20

What is an AFQTP?

Back 20

An Air Force qualification training package (AFQTP) is an instructional course designed for use at the unit to qualify, or aid in qualifying, in a duty position, in a program, or on a piece of equipment.

Front 21

What are the requirements for obtaining a 3C 5-skill level?

Back 21

1) Complete applicable AFJQS's/AFQTP's

2) Complete all the required 3CX5X STS core tasks.

3) Complete the 3CX5X and AFSC Specific CDC.

4) Have all qualifications in and possession of AFSC 3CX3X.

Complete all local tasks assigned for the duty position.

6) Eligible for a Secret security clearance IAW AFI 31-501, Personnel Security Program Management.

7) Experience performing basic AFSC tasks and functions.

8) Minimum 15 months OJT training (9 months for retrainees)

9) Be recommended by your immediate supervisor and commanders approval.

Front 22

Name the three OJT components.

Back 22

Job Knwledge, Job Proficiency, and job Experience.

Front 23

What are the seven types of training used in UGT and QT?

Back 23

Initial Skills Training, regional training centers, career development courses (CDC), mission readiness training, distance learning training, AFETS Air Force Engineering and Technical Services Courses, 7-Skill level craftsman courses.

Front 24

What is an AF Form 623 is used for?

Back 24

AF 623 is used for on the job training record (or electronic equivalent) is the standard folder used as a training record. The AF Form 623 reflects past and current qualifications, and is used to determine training requirements.

Front 25

Name three basic military responsibilities that we must adhere to.

Back 25

Upholding Military Standards, Fostering good customer relations, and maintaining/upgrading our technical competence.

Front 26

Historically, to whom did 3C wartime support responsibility belonged?

Back 26

To combat communications units such as the theater air control system (TACS) or contingency communications elements.

Front 27

What do deployable communications capabilities require of CIS equipment?

Back 27

Be readily Available and Modularly designed to support deployed AEF's.

Front 28

What is our role in joint and combined force operations?

Back 28

To support the joint task force (JTF) commander, who must have immediate access to the status of subordinate forces from all involved services.

Front 29

What do AFOSH standards establish?

Back 29

Air Force work area/shop environment safety and health standards.

Front 30

What must you do if you believe a potential safety hazard may exist in your work area?

Back 30

You must immediately secure the area and contact your supervisor, unit safety representative or ground safety office.

Front 31

How does the Air Force obtain the AFOSH goal of minimizing incidences-of chemically induced occupational illnesses and injuries in the work area/shops?

Back 31

The Air Force does this by establishing guidance for training employees on the health and physical hazards associated with proper preventative measures.

Front 32

What is ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?

Back 32

Electromagnetic (EM) radiation whose waves contain energy sufficient to overcome the binding energy of electrons in atoms or molecules, thus creating ions.

Front 33

With whom would you coordinate the disposal of hazardous waste material?

Back 33

With the host installation environmental management such as the base bioenvironmental engineering (BE).

Front 34

State six (6) basic guidelines for safety observers.

Back 34

1) Must be familiar with local procedures to obtain medical assistance;
2) trained and current in first-aid and CPR;
3) give a positive warning of potential danger to anyone approaching the equipment;
4) stand where they can plainly see all personnel who are working on the equipment;
5) have clear access to the main power switch;
6) need not be proficient in the task being observed.

Front 35

Define operational risk management (ORM)?

Back 35

ORM is a decision making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation.

Front 36

Name the four (4) principles that govern all actions associated with the ORM.

Back 36

1) Accept no unnecessary risk.
2) Make risk decision at the appropriate level.
3) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
4) Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

Front 37

What hazards do a noise area with above 85 decibels (dB) create?

Back 37

Noise could restrict verbal communication, while extensive exposure at levels at or above 85 decibels (dB) can cause hearing loss.

Front 38

What should you consider when cleaning raised computer room floors?

Back 38

Raised floors will not be cleaned with flamable liquids or abrasive scrubbing powders. When toxic cleaning agents are used, adequate ventilation must be provided to remove vapors.

Front 39

Where should emergency control switches be installed in data processing rooms; what should
they disconnect?

Back 39

Emergency controls are best located at designated exit doors. These controls will disconnect the ventilation system serving the room and selective power to all electrical equipment in the room except lighting.

Front 40

How are electrostatic charges generated?

Back 40

Whenever there is motion between various types of material.

Front 41

When handling computer memory chips, what can you do to reduce electrostatic hazards?

Back 41

You should use a grounding strap to eliminate the buildup or discharge of electrostatic energy before you
touched them to prevent possible chip damage.

Front 42

State the three (3) classes of ESD.

Back 42

1) Class I - Sensitive items from 0-999 volts.

2) Class II - Sensitive items from 1000 to 3999 volts.

3) Class III - Sensitive items from 4000 to 14999 volts.

Front 43

What strong preventive measures can you take against ESDs?

Back 43

You should wear a conductive wrist strap when using a grounded workbench; also include an ionizing air
blower.

Front 44

When applied to the first digit of an AFSC, what identifies the career grouping in terms of its relationship to the Air Force mission?

Back 44

Career Group

Front 45

What uses a combination of the first digit and second position letter in an AFSC and is a functional grouping of personnel requiring the same knowledge and skills?

Back 45

Career Field

Front 46

What is comprised of positions I and 2 combined with the third positioned digit of an AFSC?

Back 46

Career field subdivision.

Front 47

What skill level does a trainee possess after initially entering into an AFSC?

Back 47

Helper.

Front 48

Before entering which skill level must an active duty trainee hold the rank of at least SSgt for?

Back 48

Craftsman.

Front 49

What is a comprehensive task list that describes a particular job type or duty position?

Back 49

Air Force Job Qualification Standard. (AFJQS)

Front 50

What is an instructional course designed for use at the unit to qualify, or aid in qualifying, in a duty position, in a program, or on a piece of equipment?

Back 50

Air Force Qualification Training Package. (AFQTP)

Front 51

Name the four (4) principles that govern all actions associated with the ORM.

Back 51

1) Accept no unnecessary risk.
2) Make risk decision at the appropriate level.
3) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
4) Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

Front 52

What hazards do a noise area with above 85 decibels (dB) create?

Back 52

Noise could restrict verbal communication, while extensive exposure at levels at or above 85 decibels (dB) can cause hearing loss.

Front 53

What should you consider when cleaning raised computer room floors?

Back 53

Raised floors will not be cleaned with flamable liquids or abrasive scrubbing powders. When toxic cleaning agents are used, adequate ventilation must be provided to remove vapors.

Front 54

Where should emergency control switches be installed in data processing rooms; what should
they disconnect?

Back 54

Emergency controls are best located at designated exit doors. These controls will disconnect the ventilation system serving the room and selective power to all electrical equipment in the room except lighting.

Front 55

How are electrostatic charges generated?

Back 55

Whenever there is motion between various types of material.

Front 56

Name the four (4) principles that govern all actions associated with the ORM.

Back 56

1) Accept no unnecessary risk.
2) Make risk decision at the appropriate level.
3) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
4) Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

Front 57

What hazards do a noise area with above 85 decibels (dB) create?

Back 57

Noise could restrict verbal communication, while extensive exposure at levels at or above 85 decibels (dB) can cause hearing loss.

Front 58

What should you consider when cleaning raised computer room floors?

Back 58

Raised floors will not be cleaned with flamable liquids or abrasive scrubbing powders. When toxic cleaning agents are used, adequate ventilation must be provided to remove vapors.

Front 59

Where should emergency control switches be installed in data processing rooms; what should
they disconnect?

Back 59

Emergency controls are best located at designated exit doors. These controls will disconnect the ventilation system serving the room and selective power to all electrical equipment in the room except lighting.

Front 60

How are electrostatic charges generated?

Back 60

Whenever there is motion between various types of material.

Front 61

What is a comprehensive multi-purpose document that encapsulates the entire spectrum of career field training?

Back 61

Career Field Education and Training Plan. (CFETP)

Front 62

What is a self-study correspondence course that provides airmen with the fundamental
knowledge of their AFS?

Back 62

Career development course. (CDC)

Front 63

Historically, 3C wartime support responsibility belonged to?

Back 63

Combat Communications units or Contingency Communications Elements.

Front 64

Emphasis on wartime communications is focused on?

Back 64

Providing the command, control, and intelligence support to requesting warfighters.

Front 65

Which AFSC is responsible for the Base Information Transfer System (BITS), postal
management, records management, network workgroup management?

Back 65

Information management (3A0X1).

Front 66

Which AFSC is responsible for reviewing reports and resolving electromagnetic
interference problems?

Back 66

Electromagetic spectrum management (3C1X2).

Front 67

Which AFSC is responsible for acquiring, funding, testing, and certifying new
communications systems coordination?

Back 67

C-CS plans and implementation (3C3X1).

Front 68

In which AFI would you reference information on personnel security program
management?

Back 68

31-501
(remember 31 series is security)

Front 69

Which AF document would you use to note on-the-job training qualifications?

Back 69

IMT 623

Front 70

Keeping your uniforms neat, clean, and safe as well as presenting a military image falls under which military member key responsibility?

Back 70

Adhering to military standards.

Front 71

Attending an AF technical school or completing a career development course upholds what key responsibility of a military member?

Back 71

Maintaining technical competence.

Front 72

In which AFOSH Standard would you reference information on Communications Cable,
Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?

Back 72

91-50
(remember 91 series is safety)

Front 73

In which AFOSH Standard would you reference information on Material Handling and
Storage Equipment?

Back 73

91-46

Front 74

In which AFOSH Standard would you reference information on Data Processing Facilities?

Back 74

91-64
(64 is data processing)

Front 75

In which AFOSH Standard would you reference Training Systems Fire Protection?

Back 75

91-118

Front 76

What is the least amount of current flow through the body that can result in shock and
cardiac arrest?

Back 76

50 mA

Front 77

Which source can harm deep tissue and organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

Back 77

Nonionizing radiation.

Front 78

At which minimum voltage must safety boards and emergency equipment be present?

Back 78

600

Front 79

In which document do you reference information on Operational Risk Management?

Back 79

AFI 90-901

Front 80

In which electrostatic discharge (ESD) class would sensitive items be in when the voltage ranges from 1,000 to 3,999?

Back 80

CLASS II (2)

Front 81

In which electrostatic discharge (ESD) class would sensitive items be in when the voltage ranges from 4,000 to 15,000?

Back 81

CLASS III (3)

Front 82

To prevent the creating of static electricity when working with electrical components, you should?

Back 82

wear a conductive wrist strap.

Front 83

How can you best describe a bit? What is it equal to?

Back 83

The bit, in computer terms, is the smallest representation of data. It is the basis of all computer memory.
One bit is equal to one binary digit.

Front 84

What is a byte? What does it consist of?

Back 84

A unit of data consisting of 8 bits.

Front 85

What is a word? What does it consist of?

Back 85

A unit of data consisting of 2 bytes or 16 bits.

Front 86

How can you best describe a segment of memory?

Back 86

A 64 KB area of memory, represented by four hexadecimal digits (0000-FFFF)

Front 87

Describe the ASCII Coding Scheme?

Back 87

ASCII is the most commonly used coding scheme for text files in computers and on the Internet. The ASCII coding scheme is widely used in hex-based computers. This coding scheme was developed by the
American National Standards Institute (ANSI) to provide a standard for information exchange between
computer systems. ASCII uses seven binary digits to represent each number, alphabetic character, and
special character.

Front 88

How can you best describe a radix? What does it indicate?

Back 88

The RADIX is also known as the base and indicates the number of digits used in a particular numbering system.

Front 89

What is an exponent? What does it indicate?

Back 89

The exponent is written as a superscript, located on the upper right side of the number. An exponent shows how many times a number is to be multiplied by itself. The value of the exponent is known as the power.

Front 90

Explain the difference between the most and least significant digits?

Back 90

The MSD or Most Significant Digit is the left most nonzero digit of a numeric value. The MSD is the digit that expresses the greatest possible value.
The LSD or Least Significant Digit is the right most digit of a numeric value to include zeros.

Front 91

State the purpose of a fractional point.

Back 91

The Fractional Point Is the point that separates the whole portion of the number from the fractional portion of a number.

Front 92

Define a network.

Back 92

Two or more computers or nodes connected together by one or more types of media to enable computers to share resources and/or communicate with each other.

Front 93

What is a Node?

Back 93

A device (such as a computer or router), used as a connection point on a computer network. It can be either a redistribution point or an end point for data transmission.

Front 94

What are network interfaces?

Back 94

The physical or logical arrangement supporting the attachment of any device to a connector or to another network device.

Front 95

Define packet switching.

Back 95

Packet switching is the intermittent transmission of logical information units or packets on a connectionless network.

Front 96

What is the difference between a hub and switch?

Back 96

A hub is a centrally located device which receives data from nodes in one or more directions and forwards data out in one or more other directions. A switch is a device that channels incoming data from any of multiple input ports to the specific output port that will forward data toward its intended destination.

Front 97

State the two functions of a router?

Back 97

1) Data Routing - Determines the optimal path or route for uits of data to travel and reach its destination.

2) Data Switching - Directs data from one intermediate physical address to the next physical address.

Front 98

Why was the OSI model developed, and what does it describe?

Back 98

The OSI Model was developed as a set of guidelines for the development of "open systems" standards. It describes how information from software application in one computer communicates with the software application in another computer.

Front 99

What are protocols and standards?

Back 99

A protocol is a set of rules that define how network communications are to take place. A standard is a set of rules or specifications that define a hardware or software device.

Front 100

State the seven (7) layers of the OSI model.

Back 100

1) Physical Layer
2) Data - Link Layer
3) Network Layer
4) Transport Layer
5) Session Layer
6) Presentation Layer
7) Application Layer

Front 101

What functions are of primary concern of the upper and lower layers of the OSI model?

Back 101

The upper three layers of the OSI model (Application, Presentation, and Session) are primarily concerned with using data while the lower four (4) layers (Transport, Network, Data-Link, and Physical) are primarily concerned with moving data.

Front 102

List the two sublayers of the Data-link layer and describe their responsibilities.

Back 102

1) The LLC is responsible for sequencing frames, error and flow control.
2) The MAC is responsible for controlling access between the source system and the network medium it uses.

Front 103

What are the Session layer responsibilities, and for what was it primarily designed to do?

Back 103

The session Layer is responsible for creating, maintaining, and terminating a network session. It handles any necessary "log-on", "password" and "Log-Off" procedures. The session layer was primarily designed around older time-sharing or mainframe systems.

Front 104

What are de facto and de jure standards, and how do they differ?

Back 104

A de facto standard is one that has become popular without the guidance of any standards organization. A de facto standard typically evolves from a product or service created by a single vendor or manufacturer. A de jure standard is a standard that has been ratified by an organization representing a governmental body, international group, professional organization, or any other entity with the authority to do so. A de jure standard often evolves from a de facto standard.

Front 105

Define proprietary standards.

Back 105

A standard that is legally "owned" by someone or some entity. Since this type of standard is actually property, you may have to purchase the right to use it.

Front 106

Define protocol suite.

Back 106

A family of protocols working together in a consistent fashion to provide communication services.

Front 107

What is a protocol stack?

Back 107

A layered set of protocols within a protocol suite working together to define communication between layers of the protocol suite.

Front 108

How does a LAN differ from a MAN?

Back 108

A local area network (LAN) is a computer network covering a small geographic area. LANs usually have
much higher data transfer rates than does a MAN and seldom if ever need leased telecommunication lines.
A MAN is an intermediate based network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic
area or region and can span a metropolitan area that local or state regulated utility commissions. A MAN is
composed of several interconnected local area networks by bridging them with backbone lines.

Front 109

Define physical topology?

Back 109

A physical topology is the geometric shape created when the networking medic (fiber or cabling) is attached to the network nodes.

Front 110

What is a major disadvantage ofthe star topology?

Back 110

A major disadvantage to the star topology is that failure of the central hub can disable the entire network.

Front 111

How is a dual counter-rotating ring topology configured?

Back 111

It contains an outer or primary ring, and an inner or secondary ring. Data likely flows counterclockwise on the primary or outer ring and clockwise on the secondary or inner ring.

Front 112

How must the ends of a bus cable be configured?

Back 112

You must treminate the ends of a bus topology with a resistor that matches the impedence of the cable.

Front 113

How is data transmitted in a logical bus topology?

Back 113

All data transmissions are sent simultaneously to all nodes on the backbone media. This broadcast transmission sends packets to all users in the network at the same time.

Front 114

State a major difference between the logical bus and logical ring topologies.

Back 114

Nodes on a logical bus topology do not regenerate data transmission while nodes on a logical ring topology do.

Front 115

What does ISO consist of, and which member represents the US?

Back 115

The ISO is an international organization composed of national standards bodies from over 130 countries; ANSI is the US member, and acts as our sole representative to the organization.

Front 116

What does lANA stand for, and what does it control?

Back 116

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority, worldwide IP Addresses which are registered and assigned by one of the four subordinate RIAR's

Front 117

What are the development goals of the TCP/IP suite?

Back 117

To allow communication among a variety of independent, multivendor systems.

Front 118

What are the five layers of the TCP/IP suite?

Back 118

Physical, Networkinterface, Internet, Transport, Application.

Front 119

What do IP addresses identify?

Back 119

Both the individual node and the network that the node is attached to.

Front 120

What do network and host numbers identify?

Back 120

The network number identifies a specific network and must be assigned by IANA if the network is to be part of the Internet. The host number identifies a specific host (or any node) on a network and is assigned by the local network administrator.

Front 121

List the five classes of networks addresses and describe their purposes.

Back 121

1) Class A - Are used for large networks. (ATT/GOV)
2) Class B - Are used for intermedicate size networks.
3) Class C - Are Used for smaller networks with about 250 nodes.
4) Class D - are reserved for multicast addresses.
5) Class E - are reserved for experimental use.

Front 122

What is a computer port?

Back 122

The interface or point of attachment to a computer system or unit. Generally ports are located on the front or back of a system. External devices such as a keyboard, monitor, printer and mouse often are attached to a computer system by a cable.

Front 123

What is the difference between a serial and a parallel port?

Back 123

A serial port is one type of interface that connects a device to the system unit by transmitting data one bit at a time; whereas, a parallel port is an interface that connects devices by transferring eight bits at a time.

Front 124

What were USB ports designed to do?

Back 124

To eliminate the need to install expansion cards into expansion slots.

Front 125

What is the most exploited port?

Back 125

Port 21-FTP

Front 126

What is port 443 used for?

Back 126

Port 443 _SSL is the default port used when you do credit card transactions with an e-commerce site.

Front 127

Which of these memory components is the smallest representation of data?

Back 127

Bit

Front 128

Which of these memory components is the smallest addressable unit of memory?

Back 128

Byte

Front 129

Which of these memory components is a unit of data that can store four hexadecimal digits?

Back 129

Word

Front 130

What bit length do computer instructions use as an addressing scheme?

Back 130

16

Front 131

Which is the most commonly used coding scheme for computer text files?

Back 131

ASCII

Front 132

Which numbering system characteristic is known as the base and indicates the number of
digits in a particular numbering system?

Back 132

Radix

Front 133

Which numbering system characteristic, the value ofwhich is known as the power,
indicates how many times a number is multiplied by itself?

Back 133

Exponent.

Front 134

Which numeric representation is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?

Back 134

MSD

Front 135

Which numeric representation is the rightmost digit of a numeric value to include zeros?

Back 135

LSD

Front 136

Which is defined as the various physical environments through which communication
transmission signals pass?

Back 136

Media

Front 137

Which is best defined as two or more computers connected together by one or more types of
media to enable the computers to share resources and/or communicate with each other?

Back 137

Network

Front 138

Which is a device (such as a computer or router) used as a connection point on a computer network?

Back 138

Node

Front 139

Which is a single-run cable or network medium that connects or channels two or more
computers together?

Back 139

Segment

Front 140

1) Which is a physical or logical arrangement supporting the attachment of any device to a connector or to another network device?

Back 140

Interface

Front 141

Which networking device modulates outgoing digital signals to analog signals for telephone line usage?

Back 141

Modem

Front 142

Which networking device receives a digital signal transmission via a medium and
regenerates the signal along the next leg of the medium.

Back 142

Repeater

Front 143

Which networking device converts data from one network format type to another and can act as a bridge to another network?

Back 143

Gateway

Front 144

Which networking device channels incoming data from any of multiple input ports to a
specified output port thus advancing data towards its intended destination?

Back 144

Switch

Front 145

Which network configuration is best suited for serving a small geographic area?

Back 145

Local Area Network

Front 146

Which network configuration is best suited for maintaining the Internet?

Back 146

Wide area network.

Front 147

Which network topology has all of the network nodes connected directly to a central
controller?

Back 147

Physical Star

Front 148

Which network topology requires additional cabling and is subject to message
bottlenecking?

Back 148

Physical Ring

Front 149

Which network topology has the advantage of having each node act as a repeater?

Back 149

Physical Ring

Front 150

Which network topology has all devices attached to the same transmission medium or cable backbone?

Back 150

Physical Bus

Front 151

Which network topology transmits all data simultaneously to all nodes on the backbone media?

Back 151

Logical Bus

Front 152

What is a set of rules that define how network communications are to take place?

Back 152

Protocols

Front 153

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable end-to-end also called host-to-host
packet delivery?

Back 153

Transport

Front 154

Which protocol standard is one that has become popular without the guidance of any
standards organization?

Back 154

De facto

Front 155

What is a family of protocols working together in a consistent fashion to provide
communication services?

Back 155

Protocol Suite

Front 156

What is a layered set of protocols within a protocol suite working together to define
communication between layers of the protocol suite?

Back 156

Protocol Stack

Front 157

In what year did transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) become the
official transport mechanism for DOD Internet usage?

Back 157

1982

Front 158

Internet protocol is composed of 32 bits which consists of

Back 158

Four Sets of (8) Eight binary bits.

Front 159

Which class ofInternet protocol addressing would you use for large networks?

Back 159

A

Front 160

Which port can transfer eight bits of data or one byte simultaneously through eight separate lines in a single cable?

Back 160

Parallel

Front 161

Which port would you use to encrypt credit card transactions with e-cornmerce sites?

Back 161

Port 443

Front 162

What is a software license?

Back 162

A legal agreement between the user and the software manufacturer that defines what the user can and cannot do with the software.

Front 163

What document represents legal proof of software ownership?

Back 163

A license certificate.

Front 164

What do license management actions ensure?

Back 164

That commercial off the shelf (COTS) software is correctly utilized with regards to how many users within a function actually have the software installed and running on their computers.

Front 165

What is the most common reason for installing new software?

Back 165

Upgrade to a newer version of a program you are already using.

Front 166

What is the objective DOD Enterprise Software Initiative (ESI)?

Back 166

To reduce problems identified with procuring software for DOD; to include price, acquisition cost, distribution, training, maintenance, and support for common-use of compliant software standards.

Front 167

Define an operating system and explain what purpose it serves.

Back 167

An operating system, or OS, is a program that manages all other programs in a computer.

Front 168

List some general functions an operating system performs.

Back 168

1) Manages memory usage and distribution. 2) Process and stores local data. 3) Process and stores local data. 4) Data input entry from external devices (eg; keyboard, scanners and flash drives) 5) Graphical appliaction presentation or output.

Front 169

Describe an operational environment.

Back 169

It is like a second set of resources added to the operating system to provide enhanced services.

Front 170

What is the main difference between an operating system and an operating environment?

Back 170

An operating environment cant be run by itself. It is dependant and relies on the operating system for resource allocation.

Front 171

Define a file and what part of it must be unique?

Back 171

An entity of data available to computer system users, to include personal computers, that is capable of being manipulated as an entity. A file must have a unique name within its own directory.

Front 172

Define encryption and decryption.

Back 172

Encryption is the conversion of data into ciphertext. Decryption is the process of converting encrypted data back into its original form so it can once again be understood.

Front 173

What is VoIP?

Back 173

VOIP is a term for a set of facilities used to manage the delivery of voice information over the Internet.

Front 174

How does VoIP differ from traditional phone circuits?

Back 174

VoIP involves sending the voice information in digital form in discrete packets rather than by using the traditional circuit-committed protocols of the public switched telephone network.

Front 175

State one advantage of using VoIP.

Back 175

A major advantage of using VOIP and Internet Telephone is that it avoids the tolls charged by ordinary telephone service.

Front 176

What is IPv4?

Back 176

IPv4 is an early version of the IP protocol that is still in use on the Internet today. IpV4 uses a 32-bit addressing scheme, represented by four 8-bit (0-255) numbers seperated by periods.

Front 177

What problem has been created by the prolonged use of IPv4?

Back 177

The prolonged use of IpV4 has created an Internet address shortage problem.

Front 178

How does IPv6 alleviate the Internet address shortage problem?

Back 178

IPv6 has IP addresses of which are lengthened from 32 bits to 128 bits. This extension anticipates
considerable future growth of the Internet and provides relief for what was perceived as an impending shortage of network addresses.

Front 179

When was the Air Force information operations (IO) doctrine finalized and published?

Back 179

August 1998

Front 180

According to the Air Force's operations doctrine what are the two pillars of Information
Operations (IO)?

Back 180

Information Warfare and Information-In-Warfare.

Front 181

What are Air Force network operating instructions (AFNOIs) and what are they used for?

Back 181

AFNOIs are directive specialized publications providing operating procedures and checklists for network
operations. AFNOIs are used to document standard processes as well as operate, maintain, or troubleshoot
network software and equipment and are generated for technical subjects not covered by Air Force
publications or technical orders.

Front 182

How do AF policy directives relate to AF instructions?

Back 182

Air Force PD's are drafted at the Air Force level and provide guidance for AFI's. AFI's are drafted at the MAJCOM and Field Operating Agency (FOA) level.

Front 183

What do operation instructions assign and how do they differ from AF instructions?

Back 183

OI's assign directive actions, responsibilities, and prescribe procedures. OI's differ from AFI's in that they are written at a much lower organizational level such as a squadron or flight level.

Front 184

Illegal distribution of software can subject a seller to arrest and felony charges with fines up to $250,000 and prison terms up to how many years?

Back 184

5 years.

Front 185

When must each computer have a license to legally access networked software?

Back 185

Prior to Utilization.

Front 186

What is an entity of data available to computer system users and is capable of being
manipulated as an entity?

Back 186

A File

Front 187

One of the most commonly used methods of encryption is

Back 187

Cryptography.

Front 188

Encrypting File Systems (EFS) provide file security by

Back 188

Encrypting each file with a randomly generated key.

Front 189

The two major reasons why many users are attracted to Internet protocol (VoIP) services are

Back 189

lower costs and increased functionality.

Front 190

In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated the first drafts of joint doctrine?

Back 190

1995

Front 191

Which publications are drafted at the Air Force level and provide guidance for AFIs?

Back 191

AF policy Directives

Front 192

Which publication are guidance documents for procedures that contain examples for performing standard tasks, or supporting education and training programs?

Back 192

Air Force Manuals.

Front 193

Which are informational publications which are "how to" documents?

Back 193

AF Pamphlets

Front 194

What reason would you study your CDC's?

Back 194

To pass them.

Front 195

How is OPSEC defined?

Back 195

OPSEC is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and activities.

Front 196

How is operational effectiveness enhanced?

Back 196

Operational effectiveness is enhanced when commanders and other decision-makers apply OPSEC principles from the earliest stages of planning.

Front 197

Name the 5 steps in the OPSEC process.

Back 197

Identification of Critical Information, threat assessment, vulnerability analysis, risk assessment, and apply OPSEC measures.

Front 198

What is the goal of OPSEC?

Back 198

The goal of OPSEC is to identify information and observable activities relating to mission capabilities, limitations and intentions in order to prevent exploitationby our adversaries.

Front 199

Which security programs does OPSEC encompass?

Back 199

OPSEC encompasses all Air Force Security Programs.

Front 200

How does a survey differ from an inspection?

Back 200

A survey attempts to produce an adversarys view of the operation or activity being surveyed. A security inspection seeks to determine if an organization is in compliance with the appropriate security directives and regulations.

Front 201

How does the Air Force control critical information?

Back 201

The Air Force must plan and execute OPSEC measures as early as possible during both mission and acquisition planning by actively anticipating the actions of petential adversaries.

Front 202

Name the four general sources of OPSEC indicators.

Back 202

Operational Indicators, Administrative Indicators, Communications Indicators, and logistic and maintenance support indicators.

Front 203

What are data and information aggregation?

Back 203

Data and Information aggregation are the collection of loosely associated data and or information. Placing simple units of data together can generate more information.

Front 204

What are considered to be among the most problematic OPSEC vulnerabilities?

Back 204

Telephones and Cell Phones.

Front 205

Who established the INFOSEC program?

Back 205

The Information Security (INFO SEC) Program, established by order of the President, assists in the protection of the United States by preventing the release of certain official information that would affect national defense.

Front 206

What is the goal of the INFOSEC program?

Back 206

The goal of the INFOSEC Program is to efficiently and effectively protect Air Force Information by delegating authority to the lowest levels possible; encouraging and advocating use of risk management principles; focusing on identifying and protecting only that information that requires protection; integrating security procedures into our business process so that they become transparent; and, ensuring everyone understands their security roles and responcibilities.

Front 207

What does the privacy act of 1974 protect?

Back 207

The Privacy Act (PA) of 1974 is the legal statute (law) protecting individuals from unwarranted invasion of their personal privacy.

Front 208

What AFI contains information on the Privacy Act?

Back 208

AFI 33-332, Air Force Privacy Act Program, contains the Air Force's policy on Privacy Act information.

Front 209

Name the four parts of the Privacy Act statement.

Back 209

Authority, Purpose, Routine Uses, and Disclosure.

Front 210

How are PA protected records disposed?

Back 210

Records protected by the privacy act are disposed of according to the records retention schedule on the file plan. The method of destruction depends on the composition of the material.

Front 211

What are the categories of classified information?

Back 211

Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential.

Front 212

What document covers FOUO and FOIA?

Back 212

The Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), covered in DoD S400.7-R, DoD Freedom of Information Act Program, provides information on the FOUO designation.

Front 213

What authority does the designated approving authority (DAA) have?

Back 213

The Designated Approving Authorities (DAA) has the authority to impose restrictions upon, and prohibit the use of, government owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks.

Front 214

When is someone permitted to access classified material?

Back 214

When required for mission essential needs and when the individual has the appropriate clearance eligibility according to AFI 31-501, Personnel Security Program Management; has signed an SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, (NDA) and has a need-to-know the information.

Front 215

When must a Top Secret Control Account (TSCA) be established?

Back 215

A Top Secret Account (TSCA) must be established when units or staff agencies routinely originate, store, receive, or dispatch Top Secret material.

Front 216

When must INFOSEC insecurities be reported and to whom?

Back 216

Personnel who learn of a security incident must immediately report it to their commander or equivalent, supervisor, or security manager who will in turn report the incident to the servicing Information Security Program Manager (ISPM) by the end of the first day.

Front 217

What is the definition of COMSEC?

Back 217

COMSEC is the protection resulting from the proper application of cryptosecurity, emissions security (EMSEC), Physical security, and transmission security (TRANSEC) measures relating to COMSEC materials.

Front 218

How does TRANSEC relate to COMSEC?

Back 218

Transmission security (TRANSEC) is the component of COMSEC resulting from the application of measures designed to protect information systems traffic from interception and exploitation by means other than crypto-analysis.

Front 219

What is critical information?

Back 219

Critical information is information about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities or limitations that an adversary seeks in order to gain a military, political, diplomatic, economic, or technological advantage.

Front 220

Explain the two-person integrity system.

Back 220

Two person integrity (TPI) is a storage and handling system that prohibits access to COMSEC keying material to lone or unaccompanied individuals. TPI procedures require the presence of at least two authorized persons, both who know TPI procedures and who can detect incorrect or unauthorized security procedures for the performed task.

Front 221

What is AFCOMSEC Form 16 used for?

Back 221

AFCOMSEC Form 16, Account Daily Shift Inventory is used to account for COM SEC material using both Defense Courier Service and the Air Force Electronic Key Management System.

Front 222

What should you look for before you open a COMSEC package?

Back 222

Make sure there is no evidence of tampering or forced entry from a previous custodian, do not open the package until advised to do so by the appropriate COMSEC authority or CRO.

Front 223

What is AF Form I 109 used for?

Back 223

AF Form I 109 is used to document visitor access to restricted areas where classified is being processed.

Front 224

Who knows what these forms contain?

Back 224

Only a wookie.

Front 225

What is a COMSEC deviation?

Back 225

A COMSEC deviation is an occurrence involving a failure to follow established COMSEC instructions, procedures, or standards.

Front 226

What is a COMSEC insecurity?

Back 226

A COMSEC insecurity is an investigated or evaluated incident that has been determined as jeopardizing the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information.

Front 227

What is a COMSEC incident?

Back 227

1) Any uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information. 2) Any investigated or evaluated occurrence determined as not jeopardizing the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information. Means presently, to harm unfounded or alleged. These are generally classified as "Confidential" until receiving guidance from higher agencies.

Front 228

Name the three COMSEC incidents.

Back 228

Physical, Personnel, and Cryptographic incidents.

Front 229

How does a practice dangerous to security (PDS) differ from a COMSEC incident?

Back 229

Practice dangerous to security (PDS) is defined as a procedure that has the potential to jeopardize the security of COMSEC material if allowed to continue. A PDS is not a COMSEC incident and is not assigned an Air Force COMSEC Incident case number.

Front 230

What document is used to label unsecured phones?

Back 230

DD form 2056 is used to label unsecured phones.

Front 231

When are the COMSEC final reports due?

Back 231

Final reports are due 30 days after the initial report is issued.

Front 232

Define COMPUSEC.

Back 232

COMPUSEC is the applied discipline that results from measures and controls that protect data in a computer against unauthorized (accidental or intentional) disclosure, modification, or destruction.

Front 233

What are the objectives of COMPUSEC?

Back 233

COMPUSEC objectives are to protect and maintain the confidentiality, integrity, availability, authenticity and non repudiation of information system resources and information processed throughout the systems life cycle.

Front 234

What are three sources that threat information systems?

Back 234

Threats are caused from natural, environmental, human, and viruses.

Front 235

Name the COMPUSEC and IA vulnerabilities.

Back 235

Deficiencies in these areas are- 1) Physical 2) Environmental 3) Personnel 4) Hardware 5) Software 6) Media 7) Network Communications 8) Procedural

Front 236

How can you protect an unattended computer system?

Back 236

You can protect an unattended computer system by removing your common access card (CAC) from the reader when unattended.

Front 237

What type of network is used to process unclassified information?

Back 237

Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET)

Front 238

What type of network is used to process. classified information?

Back 238

Secret Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET)

Front 239

What is spyware?

Back 239

Spyware is computer software that is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent.

Front 240

Define EMSEC.

Back 240

Emissions Security (EMSEC) is the protection resulting from all measures taken to deny unauthorized personnel information of value that might be derived from communications systems and cryptographic equipment intercepts and the interception and analysis of compromising emanations from cryptographic equipment, info systems, and telecom systems.

Front 241

What is the objective of EMSEC?

Back 241

The objective of EMSEC is to deny access to classified and in some instances, unclassified information and contain comprimising emanations within an inspectable space.

Front 242

What are compromising emanations?

Back 242

Unintentional signal that, if intercepted and analyzed, would disclose the information transferred, received, handled, or otherwise processed by any information-processing equipment.

Front 243

What does an EMSEC assessment determine?

Back 243

A desktop analysis to determine the fact an EMSEC countermeasures review is required or not. There are separate EMSEC assessments for information systems, communications systems, and cryptographic equipment.

Front 244

What does an EMSEC countermeasure provide?

Back 244

A technical evaluation of a facility where classified information will be processed that identifies the EMSEC vulnerabilities and threats, specifies the required inspectable space, determines the required EMSEC countermeasures and ascertains the most cost-effective way to apply required countermeasures.

Front 245

What does the user identify before applying EMSEC countermeasures?

Back 245

The user identifies the information systems that will process classified information; the volume, relative sensitivity, and perishability of the information; the physical control measures in effect around the area that will process classified information; and applies identified IA and EMSEC countermeasures.

Front 246

What do INFOCONs help us with?

Back 246

INFOCONS help units take the proper protective measures to protect against threats.

Front 247

What measures are in place when there is an increased risk of attack in INFOCON 4?

Back 247

Increased monitoring of all network activities is mandated, and all DOD end users must make sure their systems are secure. Internet usage may be restricted to government sites only, and backing up files to removable media is ideal.

Front 248

Describe the actions taken in INFOCON 2.

Back 248

Non-essential networks may be taken offline, and alternate methods of communication may be implemented.

Front 249

What disciplines does IA integrate?

Back 249

Information awareness is an integrated communications awareness program covering COMSEC, COMPUSEC, and emissions security (EMSEC) disciplines.

Front 250

What disciplines does IA integrate?

Back 250

Information awareness is an integrated communications awareness program covering COMSEC, COMPUSEC, and emissions security (EMSEC) disciplines.

Front 251

What actions must personnel take to meet the goals of the IA program?

Back 251

Personnel must understand the necessity and practice of safeguarding information processed, stored, or transmitted on information systems, and the various concepts of IA countermeasures to protect systems and information from being sabotaged, tampering, denial of service, espionage, fraud, misappropriation, misuse, or access by unauthorized persons.

Front 252

What equipment does the AF-GIG encompass?

Back 252

The AF-GIG includes any Air Force - provisioned system, equipment, software, or service residing on the Nonsecure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET), Secret Intenet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET) or Constellation Net.

Front 253

What is the Global Information Grid (GIG)?

Back 253

The Global Information Grid (GIG) is an all-encompassing communications project of the DOD. It is defined as the globally interconnected, end to end set of information capabilities, associated processes, and personnel for collecting, processing, storing, disseminating, and manageing information on demand to warfighters, policymakers, and support personnel.

Front 254

What is the goal of NETOPS?

Back 254

The goal of Network Operations (NETOPS) is to provide effective, efficient, secure, and reliable information network services used in critical Department of Defense (DOD) and Air Force communications and information processes.

Front 255

What are the three NETOPS Levels?

Back 255

Global, Regional, and Local

Front 256

What is the GNOSC responsible for?

Back 256

Global NOSC (GNOSC) is responsible for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the Defense Information Infrastructure (DII).

Front 257

Where do Functional Awareness Cells (FACs) exist and what are their purposes?

Back 257

Functional Awareness Cells (FAC) are regional level entities that exist at the same NETWOPS management tier as the Base NCC. They report to and take direction from the Base and supporting NOSc. FAC's require smaller amounts of equipment and performs situational awareness for a functional system or mission.

Front 258

What does an accreditation and certification constitute?

Back 258

Accreditation and Certification (A&C) constitutes a set of procedures and judgments which lead to a determination of the suitability of an AIS to operate in a targeted operational environment.

Front 259

Who makes accreditation decisions and what types can be made?

Back 259

An accreditation decision is made by the DAA. This accreditation can be full accreditation which allows a system to operate until identified steps can be completed prior to receiving full accreditation.

Front 260

Define physical security.

Back 260

Physical security results from the using of all physical measures necessary to safeguard COMSEC material from access of unauthorized personnel. These measures include the application of control procedures and physical barriers.

Front 261

List the marking required for classified material.

Back 261

The overall classification of the document; the agency/office of origin and the date of the document; the office or source document that classified the information.

Front 262

What items can't be placed in the security container and what is the reason?

Back 262

Funds, weapons, medical items, controlled drugs, precious metals, money or other non-mission related items susceptible to theft are not, as a rule, stored in any security container thats used to store classified material. Storing these items together could result in the compromise of classified material.

Front 263

What is the purpose of Standard Form 700?

Back 263

The purpose of Standard Form 700 is to list contact personnel when the security of the material in the container is compromised.

Front 264

On what days are Secret packages typically shipped?

Back 264

Packages containing secret material are typically shipped on Monday through Thursday only.

Front 265

When should hand carrying classified material during a TDY assignment be allowed?

Back 265

Hand carrying classified material during TDY poses a risk and should be done as a last resort in critical situations.

Front 266

How do you properly dispose of classified material?

Back 266

Records during the destruction of classified material must be maintained. The Air Force accounts for Top Secret material and disposes of such administrative records according to WebRims Records Disposition Schedule.

Front 267

What are the three secured facility deviations?

Back 267

Temporary, permanent, and technical.

Front 268

Name the security program which is defined as a process of identifying critical
information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other
activities?

Back 268

OPSEC

Front 269

When was the first Air Force OPSEC program introduced?

(Something about Viet Nam?)

Back 269

1966

Front 270

In what year was the present OPSEC program we use today established?

Back 270

1970

Front 271

In which of the OPSEC steps would you inform the AFOSI of potential
adversaries and their associated capabilities, limitations and intentions to collect, analyze, and use
critical information?

Back 271

Threat Assessment

Front 272

In which OPSEC step would program managers and coordinators
recommend actions to senior decision-makers and commanders?

Back 272

Risk Assessment

Front 273

Which OPSEC step would dynamic situations require you to reaccomplish
preventative actions?

Back 273

Apply OPSEC measures.

Front 274

Specific facts about friendly activities, intentions, capabilities or limitations vitally needed by
adversaries for them to plan and act effectively to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences
for friendly mission accomplishment best describe

Back 274

Critical Information

Front 275

In which OPSEC indicator would an abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules fall under?

Back 275

Operational

Front 276

Special briefings, meetings, or religious services would fall under which OPSEC indicator?

Back 276

Administrative

Front 277

Deviating from normal procedures would fall under which OPSEC indicator?

Back 277

Logistic and maintenance support.

Front 278

Data aggregation is defined as the

Back 278

Collection of loosely associated data and/or information.

Front 279

What are among the most problematic OPSEC vulnerabilities in the Air Force today?

Back 279

Tellephones and Cell Phones.

Front 280

The reason information is collected best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act
Statement?

Back 280

Purpose

Front 281

What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?

Back 281

AF Form 3227

Front 282

Guidance for posting information on AF web sites is outlined in

Back 282

AFI 33-129.

Front 283

Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified
information can be found in

Back 283

AFI 31-501.

Front 284

Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, unauthorized access, or modification that might adversely affect national security would best be described as

Back 284

Sensitive but unclassified.

SBU

Front 285

Which document provides guidance on the Information Security Program Management?

Back 285

AFI 31-401.

Front 286

What specific restrictions can a designated approving authority (DAA) impose on classified systems or networks?

Back 286

Prohibit the use of government owned removable storage media.

Front 287

Before obtaining access to classified material, which document must be signed as a
prerequisite?

Back 287

Standard Form 312

Front 288

What form is annotated at the end-of-day security check to ensure classified material is
stored appropriately?

Back 288

Standard Form 701

Front 289

What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

Back 289

Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information.

Front 290

What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

Back 290

AFI 33-119

Front 291

Where would you find guidance on how to properly store, control, safeguard, transfer, and
destroy COMSEC material?

Back 291

AFI 31-201, Volume I.

Front 292

Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?

Back 292

SF 153

Front 293

Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

Back 293

AF Form 1109

Front 294

An investigated or evaluated incident that has been determined as jeopardizing the security of COMSEC material is best described as a COMSEC

Back 294

insecurity

Front 295

An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COM SEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC

Back 295

Incident

Front 296

What are the three types of COMSEC incidents?

Back 296

Physical, personnel, and cryptographic

Front 297

Which organization assigns COMSEC incident report case numbers?

Back 297

Air Force Communications Agency

Front 298

Final reports of a COMSEC incident are due

Back 298

30 days after the initial report is issued.

Front 299

The Air Force Information Assurance (lA) Awareness Program is detailed in

Back 299

AFI 33-204.

Front 300

Which security program applies discipline measures and controls to protect data computer system data against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?

Back 300

COMPUSEC

Front 301

What computer software is designed to collect personal information such as passwords and
financial details without the users consent?

Back 301

Spyware

Front 302

What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?

Back 302

Emanation

Front 303

An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations
from an electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

Back 303

TEMPEST

Front 304

Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer
networks?

Back 304

INFOCON 5

Front 305

Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

Back 305

INFOCON 4

Front 306

When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected

Back 306

INFOCON 3.

Front 307

Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?

Back 307

INFOCON 2

Front 308

Which AFI provides the guidance necessary to manage the increasingly
complex network environment and customers high quality service?

Back 308

AFI 33-115, Volume 2.

Front 309

At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational
oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?

Back 309

Tier 1

Front 310

At which NETOPS level are networks managed at the local level?

Back 310

Tier 3

Front 311

An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

Back 311

Full Accreditation

Front 312

An accreditation decision which permits an information system to operate until specific identified steps can be completed is known as

Back 312

an interim accreditation.

Front 313

Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires the
greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts?

Back 313

A

Front 314

Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a
significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

Back 314

B

Front 315

Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a
reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

Back 315

C

Front 316

Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "top
secret" information?

Back 316

SF 706

Front 317

Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "secret" information?

Back 317

SF 707

Front 318

Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing
"unclassified" material?

Back 318

SF 710

Front 319

Personnel conducting end-of-day security checks will make sure classified material is stored appropriately at the close of each working day and record them on

Back 319

Standard Form 701

Front 320

The top secret control officer (TSCO) uses which form for the purpose of a "top secret
cover sheet and access" disclosure of record?

Back 320

AF Form 144

Front 321

Explain what an AEF is composed of?

Back 321

An air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is an organizational structure composed of Air Force
capabilities that can provide the war-fighting combatant commander with rapid and responsive air and
space power assets.

Front 322

How has the AEF concept changed Air Force operations?

Back 322

By retooling from a "stay-at-home," or fixed-base, mindset to an expeditionary/deployable one. Developing
the means to spread tasking across the force to relieve the increase in deployments on a small number of
units. Providing predictability and stability for our people.

Front 323

How are Total Forces postured?

Back 323

Total Forces are identified and made available (postured) across a rotational structure of 10 AEF force
packages to ensure availability of a full range of air and space capabilities for combatant commander
requirements.

Front 324

In a surge/crisis-state, how does force predictability and stability relate to flexibility?

Back 324

In a surge/crisis state, force predictability and stability take second place over flexibility because the
security environment is no longer predictable. Personnel may be frozen in place and pull a rotation longer
than 120 days when in a crisis state.

Front 325

Where would you research information on 365-day deployments?

Back 325

You can find lots of updated information at the AEF center website (https://aefcenter.afpc.randolph.af.mil/)
concerning 36S-day deployments.

Front 326

What is the main mission for QRPs?

Back 326

The main mission for QRPs was to deploy ahead of sustaining communications packages, set-up
communications for deployed commanders, then tum over the communication networks to the sustaining
inbound units.

Front 327

What is the primary mission of the AOC?

Back 327

The primary mission of the AOC is to provide the JFACC with the tools necessary to fight and win a MTW
within the scope and coordination of all land, sea and air forces.

Front 328

What is a unit type code (UTC)?

Back 328

A unit type code (UTC) is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of AEFs.

Front 329

Define UTC posturing.

Back 329

Posturing is the process of identifying and making available a unit's trained and ready capable UTCs.

Front 330

How would you best describe TDCs and its composition?

Back 330

TDC is a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and
non-secure voice, data, and video communications via line of sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired
resources. TDC is comprised of highly transportable commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS) communications
equipment, housed in transit cases, and is fully scalable to meet new Air Force mission requirements.

Front 331

What does the AEF reporting xtool enable?

Back 331

The ART enables commanders to report the ability of a standard UTC to perform its mission capability
statement (MISCAP) anywhere in the world (at the time of the assessment) and identify capability through
the next AEF bucket.

Front 332

Explain what MEFPAK is and the purpose it serves.

Back 332

MEFPAK is the Air Force system used for UTC package management. The purpose ofMEFPAK is to
provide standard descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels
of command.

Front 333

What is JOPES and what was designed to facilitate?

Back 333

JOPES is the DOD directed integrated joint command and control (C2) system for conventional operation
planning and execution (to include theater-level nuclear and chemical plans). JOPES was designed to
. facilitate rapid building and timely maintenance of plans and rapid development of effective options
through adaptation of approved operation plans during crisis.

Front 334

Name three standard reference files.

Back 334

Three standard reference files are: GEOFILE, TUCHA, and TUDET.

Front 335

What does the TUCHA file contain?

Back 335

The TUCHA file contains the deployment data for all approved DOD UTCs, including the number of
passengers and the cargo increments and the weights and dimensions.

Front 336

Describe MANFOR

Back 336

MANFOR is a database containing the UTC and title, mission capability (MISCAP), and manpower detail
for each applicable UTe.

Front 337

How does LOGDET relate to LOGFOR?

Back 337

LOGFOR is a subsystem ofMEFPAK and COMPES which contains the logistics detail for standard Air
Force packages. LOGFOR is used to collect and store the material requirements (also called the logistics
detail (LOGDET)) for UTes. The LOGDET defines the standard equipment requirements for each.

Front 338

Name the two types of UTCs

Back 338

Standard and non-standard.

Front 339

What document should you refer to for additional guidance on using and posturing UTC?

Back 339

AFI 10-401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution, Chapter 7.

Front 340

What specific restrictions can a designated approving authority (DAA) impose on classified
systems or networks?

Back 340

Prohibit the use of government owned removable storage media.

Front 341

Before obtaining access to classified material, which document must be signed as a
prerequisite?

Back 341

Standard Form 312

Front 342

What form is annotated at the end-of-day security check to ensure classified material is
stored appropriately?

Back 342

Standard Form 701

Front 343

What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

Back 343

Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information.

Front 344

What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

Back 344

AFI 33-119.

Front 345

What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?

Back 345

Emanation

Front 346

An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations
from an electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

Back 346

TEMPEST

Front 347

Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer
networks?

Back 347

INFOCON 5

Front 348

Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

Back 348

INFOCON 4

Front 349

When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected

Back 349

INFOCON 3.

Front 350

Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing
"unclassified" material?

Back 350

SF 710

Front 351

Personnel conducting end-of-day security checks will make sure classified material is stored appropriately at the close of each working day and record them on

Back 351

Standard Form 701

Front 352

The top secret control officer (TSCO) uses which form for the purpose of a "top secret
cover sheet and access" disclosure of record?

Back 352

AF Form 144

Front 353

How does the Air Force organize, train, equip, and sustain the best air and space force by

Back 353

Using the AEF concept.

Front 354

Which of the following is defined as the legal authority exercised over subordinates by virtue of rank assignment?

Back 354

Control

Front 355

Which database is used for the purpose of coordinating the movement of joint forces into their operational locations?

Back 355

TPFDD. ( Time-phased- Force and Deployment Data )

Front 356

Which of the following is used to collect and store the data of material requirements and
logistics details for UTCs?

Back 356

LOGFOR (Logistics Force Packaging Subsystem)

Front 357

Which characteristics should proposed theater deployable communications (TDC)
equipment strive to have?

Back 357

Open system standards, interoperability, and survivability.

Front 358

TDC is composed of which three major components?

Back 358

Ground Satellite Terminals, ICAP, NCC-D

Front 359

Which is a suite of modules and accessory kits that serve as the backbone for deployed
communication networks?

Back 359

ICAP

Front 360

Which airborne platform collects real-time positioning and tracking data on the location of friendly and enemy aircraft and naval vessels in the AOR?

Back 360

E-3 Sentry

Front 361

Which is the primary system used for analyzing dynamic intelligence, surveillance, and
reconnaissance data of rapid post-mission?

Back 361

Ground data processing stations.

Front 362

Which is a development program focused on providing exploitable surveillance and
reconnaissance digital imagery to the war fighter in near real-time?

Back 362

JSTARS?

Front 363

Which frequency range is used for UHF band designation?

Back 363

300 to 3000 MHz

Front 364

Which frequency range is used for SHF band designation?

Back 364

3 to 30 GHz

Front 365

Which are used as the main propagation modes of transmissions for direct and ground reflected waves?

Back 365

VHF/UHF.

Front 366

Which are used as the primary transmissions of direct radio waves?

Back 366

EHF/SHF

Front 367

One of the disadvantages of line-of-sight primary mode of radio transmissions is that relay stations are required

Back 367

when distances exceeds 30 to 40 miles.

Front 368

Which frequency range using the tropospheric scatter, satellite, air/ground/air, and LOS for its
main propagation paths?

Back 368

UHF (Ultra High Frequency)

Front 369

Which frequency range uses satellite cross-linking capability for global transmissions using EHF
ranges for uplinks and SHF ranges for downlinks?

Back 369

EHF (Extremely High Frequency)

Front 370

How do electric and magnetic fields relate?

Back 370

A time varying electric field generates a magnetic field, while a time varying magnetic field generates an electric field.

Front 371

At approximately what frequency will a magnetic field no longer completely collapse?

Back 371

10,000 cycles per second.

Front 372

How can the movement of radio waves through space best be simplified?

Back 372

By comparing them to wave movement in a pond.

Front 373

How are wavelength measured?

Back 373

Wavelength is measured by the distance between two successive crests or any corresponding points on two consecutive cycles of a sine wave.

Front 374

Name three actions which can affect radio waves which travel through free space at the speed of light.

Back 374

They can be reflected, refracted, or diffracted.

Front 375

Define an AFSC.

Back 375

An Air Force Specialty Code ia a logically grouped five-digit alphanumeric code that further classifies an AFS

Front 376

What are the five components that compose an AFSC?

Back 376

"Career Group, Career Field, Career Field Subdivision, Skill level and Career Field Identifier."

Front 377

Name the three types of AFSC identifiers.

Back 377

"Primary AFSC, Duty AFSC, and Control AFSC."

Front 378

What does the duty AFSC identify?

Back 378

The Authorized Manning Position to which you are assigned and reflect the job you are currently performing.

Front 379

What is the control AFSC used for?

Back 379

It is used by AFPC for assignment and training purposes. AFPC uses this specialty code to distribute Airmen resources by grade and skill according to the needs of the Air Force.

Front 380

Name the three AFSC modifiers.

Back 380

"Prefix, Suffix, and Special Experience Identifiers."

Front 381

When should you be enrolled into your CDC course?

Back 381

You should be enrolled into a career development course (CDC) within 45 days of arriving at your new duty assignment.

Front 382

How long are retrainees placed in upgrade training before receiving a 5-skill level?

Back 382

A minimum of nine months in upgrade training.

Front 383

What is an AFJQS?

Back 383

An Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS) is a comprehensive task list that describes a particular job type or duty position.

Front 384

What is an AFQTP?

Back 384

"An Air Force qualification training package (AFQTP) is an instructional course designed for use at the unit to qualify, or aid in qualifying, in a duty position, in a program, or on a piece of equipment."

Front 385

When should you be first interviewed by the unit training manager?

Back 385

Within the first 30 days of your duty assignment.

Front 386

State a few differences between a FSA and a CSA.

Back 386

"Functional System Administrator (FSA) who will come up with solutions to network and network user related problems. FSA's communicate directly with local helpdesk personnel. FSA's will usually have several designated client system administrators (CSA), who assist the FSA with network user problems. CSA's try to solve network user problems first before asking the FSA for assistance."

Front 387

"Which AFSC is responsible for loading software programs, files, and databases on to network servers and who also responds to trouble calls and console messages?"

Back 387

C-CS Operators (3C0X1)

Front 388

Which AFSC is responsible for configuring antennas and radio equipment for efficient field

Front 389

"operations, while establishing and maintaining communications links with distant.stations?"

Back 389

Radio Communications System Personnel (3C1X1)

Front 390

"Which AFSC is responsible for coordinating plans for acquiring, funding, testing, and certifying"

Front 391

new communications systems?

Back 391

C-CS Planning and Implementation Personnel (3C3X1)

Front 392

Name the three AFSC modifiers.

Back 392

"Prefix, Suffix, and Special Experience Identifiers."

Front 393

When should you be enrolled into your CDC course?

Back 393

You should be enrolled into a career development course (CDC) within 45 days of arriving at your new duty assignment.

Front 394

How long are retrainees placed in upgrade training before receiving a 5-skill level?

Back 394

A minimum of nine months in upgrade training.

Front 395

What is an AFJQS?

Back 395

An Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS) is a comprehensive task list that describes a particular job type or duty position.

Front 396

What is an AFQTP?

Back 396

"An Air Force qualification training package (AFQTP) is an instructional course designed for use at the unit to qualify, or aid in qualifying, in a duty position, in a program, or on a piece of equipment."

Front 397

What are the requirements for obtaining a 3C 5-skill level?

Back 397

1) Complete applicable AFJQS's/AFQTP's

Front 399

2) Complete all the required 3CX5X STS core tasks.

Front 401

3) Complete the 3CX5X and AFSC Specific CDC.

Front 403

4) Have all qualifications in and possession of AFSC 3CX3X.

Front 405

Complete all local tasks assigned for the duty position.

Front 407

"6) Eligible for a Secret security clearance IAW AFI 31-501, Personnel Security Program Management."

Front 409

7) Experience performing basic AFSC tasks and functions.

Front 411

8) Minimum 15 months OJT training (9 months for retrainees)

Front 413

9) Be recommended by your immediate supervisor and commanders approval.

Front 414

Name the three OJT components.

Back 414

"Job Knowledge, Job Proficiency, and job Experience."

Front 415

What are the seven types of training used in UGT and QT?

Back 415

"Initial Skills Training, regional training centers, career development courses (CDC), mission readiness training, distance learning training, AFETS Air Force Engineering and Technical Services Courses, 7-Skill level craftsman courses."

Front 416

What is an AF Form 623 is used for?

Back 416

"AF 623 is used for on the job training record (or electronic equivalent) is the standard folder used as a training record. The AF Form 623 reflects past and current qualifications, and is used to determine training requirements."

Front 417

Name three basic military responsibilities that we must adhere to.

Back 417

"Upholding Military Standards, Fostering good customer relations, and maintaining/upgrading our technical competence."

Front 418

"Historically, to whom did 3C wartime support responsibility belonged?"

Back 418

To combat communications units such as the theater air control system (TACS) or contingency communications elements.

Front 419

What do deployable communications capabilities require of CIS equipment?

Back 419

Be readily Available and Modularly designed to support deployed AEF's.

Front 420

What is our role in joint and combined force operations?

Back 420

"To support the joint task force (JTF) commander, who must have immediate access to the status of subordinate forces from all involved services."

Front 421

What do AFOSH standards establish?

Back 421

Air Force work area/shop environment safety and health standards.

Front 422

What must you do if you believe a potential safety hazard may exist in your work area?

Back 422

"You must immediately secure the area and contact your supervisor, unit safety representative or ground safety office."

Front 423

How does the Air Force obtain the AFOSH goal of minimizing incidences-of chemically induced occupational illnesses and injuries in the work area/shops?

Back 423

The Air Force does this by establishing guidance for training employees on the health and physical hazards associated with proper preventative measures.

Front 424

What is ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?

Back 424

"Electromagnetic (EM) radiation whose waves contain energy sufficient to overcome the binding energy of electrons in atoms or molecules, thus creating ions."

Front 425

With whom would you coordinate the disposal of hazardous waste material?

Back 425

With the host installation environmental management such as the base bioenvironmental engineering (BE).

Front 426

State six (6) basic guidelines for safety observers.

Back 426

1) Must be familiar with local procedures to obtain medical assistance;

Front 427

2) trained and current in first-aid and CPR;

Front 428

3) give a positive warning of potential danger to anyone approaching the equipment;

Front 429

4) stand where they can plainly see all personnel who are working on the equipment;

Front 430

5) have clear access to the main power switch;

Front 431

6) need not be proficient in the task being observed.

Front 432

Define operational risk management (ORM)?

Back 432

"ORM is a decision making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation."

Front 433

Name the four (4) principles that govern all actions associated with the ORM.

Back 433

1) Accept no unnecessary risk.

Front 434

2) Make risk decision at the appropriate level.

Front 435

3) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

Front 436

4) Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

Front 437

What hazards do a noise area with above 85 decibels (dB) create?

Back 437

"Noise could restrict verbal communication, while extensive exposure at levels at or above 85 decibels (dB) can cause hearing loss."

Front 438

What should you consider when cleaning raised computer room floors?

Back 438

"Raised floors will not be cleaned with flammable liquids or abrasive scrubbing powders. When toxic cleaning agents are used, adequate ventilation must be provided to remove vapors."

Front 439

Where should emergency control switches be installed in data processing rooms; what should

Front 440

they disconnect?

Back 440

Emergency controls are best located at designated exit doors. These controls will disconnect the ventilation system serving the room and selective power to all electrical equipment in the room except lighting.

Front 441

How are electrostatic charges generated?

Back 441

Whenever there is motion between various types of material.

Front 442

"When handling computer memory chips, what can you do to reduce electrostatic hazards?"

Back 442

You should use a grounding strap to eliminate the buildup or discharge of electrostatic energy before you

Front 443

touched them to prevent possible chip damage.

Front 444

State the three (3) classes of ESD.

Back 444

1) Class I - Sensitive items from 0-999 volts.

Front 446

2) Class II - Sensitive items from 1000 to 3999 volts.

Front 448

3) Class III - Sensitive items from 4000 to 14999 volts.

Front 449

What strong preventive measures can you take against ESDs?

Back 449

You should wear a conductive wrist strap when using a grounded workbench; also include an ionizing air

Front 450

blower.

Front 451

"When applied to the first digit of an AFSC, what identifies the career grouping in terms of its relationship to the Air Force mission?"

Back 451

Career Group

Front 452

What uses a combination of the first digit and second position letter in an AFSC and is a functional grouping of personnel requiring the same knowledge and skills?

Back 452

Career Field

Front 453

What is comprised of positions I and 2 combined with the third positioned digit of an AFSC?

Back 453

Career field subdivision.

Front 454

What skill level does a trainee possess after initially entering into an AFSC?

Back 454

Helper.

Front 455

Before entering which skill level must an active duty trainee hold the rank of at least SSgt for?

Back 455

Craftsman.

Front 456

What is a comprehensive task list that describes a particular job type or duty position?

Back 456

Air Force Job Qualification Standard. (AFJQS)

Front 457

"What is an instructional course designed for use at the unit to qualify, or aid in qualifying, in a duty position, in a program, or on a piece of equipment?"

Back 457

Air Force Qualification Training Package. (AFQTP)

Front 458

Name the four (4) principles that govern all actions associated with the ORM.

Back 458

1) Accept no unnecessary risk.

Front 459

2) Make risk decision at the appropriate level.

Front 460

3) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

Front 461

4) Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

Front 462

What hazards do a noise area with above 85 decibels (dB) create?

Back 462

"Noise could restrict verbal communication, while extensive exposure at levels at or above 85 decibels (dB) can cause hearing loss."

Front 463

What should you consider when cleaning raised computer room floors?

Back 463

"Raised floors will not be cleaned with flammable liquids or abrasive scrubbing powders. When toxic cleaning agents are used, adequate ventilation must be provided to remove vapors."

Front 464

Where should emergency control switches be installed in data processing rooms; what should

Front 465

they disconnect?

Back 465

Emergency controls are best located at designated exit doors. These controls will disconnect the ventilation system serving the room and selective power to all electrical equipment in the room except lighting.

Front 466

How are electrostatic charges generated?

Back 466

Whenever there is motion between various types of material.

Front 467

Name the four (4) principles that govern all actions associated with the ORM.

Back 467

1) Accept no unnecessary risk.

Front 468

2) Make risk decision at the appropriate level.

Front 469

3) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

Front 470

4) Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.

Front 471

What hazards do a noise area with above 85 decibels (dB) create?

Back 471

"Noise could restrict verbal communication, while extensive exposure at levels at or above 85 decibels (dB) can cause hearing loss."

Front 472

What should you consider when cleaning raised computer room floors?

Back 472

"Raised floors will not be cleaned with flammable liquids or abrasive scrubbing powders. When toxic cleaning agents are used, adequate ventilation must be provided to remove vapors."

Front 473

Where should emergency control switches be installed in data processing rooms; what should

Front 474

they disconnect?

Back 474

Emergency controls are best located at designated exit doors. These controls will disconnect the ventilation system serving the room and selective power to all electrical equipment in the room except lighting.

Front 475

How are electrostatic charges generated?

Back 475

Whenever there is motion between various types of material.

Front 476

What is a comprehensive multi-purpose document that encapsulates the entire spectrum of career field training?

Back 476

Career Field Education and Training Plan. (CFETP)

Front 477

What is a self-study correspondence course that provides airmen with the fundamental

Front 478

knowledge of their AFS?

Back 478

Career development course. (CDC)

Front 479

"Historically, 3C wartime support responsibility belonged to?"

Back 479

Combat Communications units or Contingency Communications Elements.

Front 480

Emphasis on wartime communications is focused on?

Back 480

"Providing the command, control, and intelligence support to requesting war fighters."

Front 481

"Which AFSC is responsible for the Base Information Transfer System (BITS), postal"

Front 482

"management, records management, network workgroup management?"

Back 482

Information management (3A0X1).

Front 483

Which AFSC is responsible for reviewing reports and resolving electromagnetic

Front 484

interference problems?

Back 484

Electromagnetic spectrum management (3C1X2).

Front 485

"Which AFSC is responsible for acquiring, funding, testing, and certifying new"

Front 486

communications systems coordination?

Back 486

C-CS plans and implementation (3C3X1).

Front 487

In which AFI would you reference information on personnel security program

Front 488

management?

Back 488

31-501

Front 489

(remember 31 series is security)

Front 490

Which AF document would you use to note on-the-job training qualifications?

Back 490

IMT 623

Front 491

"Keeping your uniforms neat, clean, and safe as well as presenting a military image falls under which military member key responsibility?"

Back 491

Adhering to military standards.

Front 492

Attending an AF technical school or completing a career development course upholds what key responsibility of a military member?

Back 492

Maintaining technical competence.

Front 493

"In which AFOSH Standard would you reference information on Communications Cable,"

Front 494

Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?

Back 494

91-50

Front 495

(remember 91 series is safety)

Front 496

In which AFOSH Standard would you reference information on Material Handling and

Front 497

Storage Equipment?

Back 497

91-46

Front 498

In which AFOSH Standard would you reference information on Data Processing Facilities?

Back 498

91-64

Front 499

(64 is data processing)

Front 500

In which AFOSH Standard would you reference Training Systems Fire Protection?

Back 500

91-118

Front 501

What is the least amount of current flow through the body that can result in shock and

Front 502

cardiac arrest?

Back 502

50 mA

Front 503

Which source can harm deep tissue and organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

Back 503

No ionizing radiation.

Front 504

At which minimum voltage must safety boards and emergency equipment be present?

Back 504

600

Front 505

In which document do you reference information on Operational Risk Management?

Back 505

AFI 90-901

Front 506

"In which electrostatic discharge (ESD) class would sensitive items be in when the voltage ranges from 1,000 to 3,999?"

Back 506

CLASS II (2)

Front 507

"In which electrostatic discharge (ESD) class would sensitive items be in when the voltage ranges from 4,000 to 15,000?"

Back 507

CLASS III (3)

Front 508

"To prevent the creating of static electricity when working with electrical components, you should?"

Back 508

wear a conductive wrist strap.

Front 509

How can you best describe a bit? What is it equal to?

Back 509

"The bit, in computer terms, is the smallest representation of data. It is the basis of all computer memory."

Front 510

One bit is equal to one binary digit.

Front 511

What is a byte? What does it consist of?

Back 511

A unit of data consisting of 8 bits.

Front 512

What is a word? What does it consist of?

Back 512

A unit of data consisting of 2 bytes or 16 bits.

Front 513

How can you best describe a segment of memory?

Back 513

"A 64 KB area of memory, represented by four hexadecimal digits (0000-FFFF)"

Front 514

Describe the ASCII Coding Scheme?

Back 514

ASCII is the most commonly used coding scheme for text files in computers and on the Internet. The ASCII coding scheme is widely used in hex-based computers. This coding scheme was developed by the

Front 515

American National Standards Institute (ANSI) to provide a standard for information exchange between

Front 516

"computer systems. ASCII uses seven binary digits to represent each number, alphabetic character, and"

Front 517

special character.

Front 518

How can you best describe a radix? What does it indicate?

Back 518

The RADIX is also known as the base and indicates the number of digits used in a particular numbering system.

Front 519

What is an exponent? What does it indicate?

Back 519

"The exponent is written as a superscript, located on the upper right side of the number. An exponent shows how many times a number is to be multiplied by itself. The value of the exponent is known as the power."

Front 520

Explain the difference between the most and least significant digits?

Back 520

The MSD or Most Significant Digit is the left most nonzero digit of a numeric value. The MSD is the digit that expresses the greatest possible value.

Front 521

The LSD or Least Significant Digit is the right most digit of a numeric value to include zeros.

Front 522

State the purpose of a fractional point.

Back 522

The Fractional Point Is the point that separates the whole portion of the number from the fractional portion of a number.

Front 523

Define a network.

Back 523

Two or more computers or nodes connected together by one or more types of media to enable computers to share resources and/or communicate with each other.

Front 524

What is a Node?

Back 524

"A device (such as a computer or router), used as a connection point on a computer network. It can be either a redistribution point or an end point for data transmission."

Front 525

What are network interfaces?

Back 525

The physical or logical arrangement supporting the attachment of any device to a connector or to another network device.

Front 526

Define packet switching.

Back 526

Packet switching is the intermittent transmission of logical information units or packets on a connectionless network.

Front 527

What is the difference between a hub and switch?

Back 527

A hub is a centrally located device which receives data from nodes in one or more directions and forwards data out in one or more other directions. A switch is a device that channels incoming data from any of multiple input ports to the specific output port that will forward data toward its intended destination.

Front 528

State the two functions of a router?

Back 528

1) Data Routing - Determines the optimal path or route for units of data to travel and reach its destination.

Front 530

2) Data Switching - Directs data from one intermediate physical address to the next physical address.

Front 531

"Why was the OSI model developed, and what does it describe?"

Back 531

The OSI Model was developed as a set of guidelines for the development of "open systems" standards. It describes how information from software application in one computer communicates with the software application in another computer.

Front 532

What are protocols and standards?

Back 532

A protocol is a set of rules that define how network communications are to take place. A standard is a set of rules or specifications that define a hardware or software device.

Front 533

State the seven (7) layers of the OSI model.

Back 533

1) Physical Layer

Front 534

2) Data - Link Layer

Front 535

3) Network Layer

Front 536

4) Transport Layer

Front 537

5) Session Layer

Front 538

6) Presentation Layer

Front 539

7) Application Layer

Front 540

What functions are of primary concern of the upper and lower layers of the OSI model?

Back 540

"The upper three layers of the OSI model (Application, Presentation, and Session) are primarily concerned with using data while the lower four (4) layers (Transport, Network, Data-Link, and Physical) are primarily concerned with moving data."

Front 541

List the two sublayers of the Data-link layer and describe their responsibilities.

Back 541

"1) The LLC is responsible for sequencing frames, error and flow control."

Front 542

2) The MAC is responsible for controlling access between the source system and the network medium it uses.

Front 543

"What are the Session layer responsibilities, and for what was it primarily designed to do?"

Back 543

"The session Layer is responsible for creating, maintaining, and terminating a network session. It handles any necessary "log-on", "password" and "Log-Off" procedures. The session layer was primarily designed around older time-sharing or mainframe systems."

Front 544

"What are de facto and de jure standards, and how do they differ?"

Back 544

"A de facto standard is one that has become popular without the guidance of any standards organization. A de facto standard typically evolves from a product or service created by a single vendor or manufacturer. A de jure standard is a standard that has been ratified by an organization representing a governmental body, international group, professional organization, or any other entity with the authority to do so. A de jure standard often evolves from a de facto standard."

Front 545

Define proprietary standards.

Back 545

"A standard that is legally "owned" by someone or some entity. Since this type of standard is actually property, you may have to purchase the right to use it."

Front 546

Define protocol suite.

Back 546

A family of protocols working together in a consistent fashion to provide communication services.

Front 547

What is a protocol stack?

Back 547

A layered set of protocols within a protocol suite working together to define communication between layers of the protocol suite.

Front 548

How does a LAN differ from a MAN?

Back 548

A local area network (LAN) is a computer network covering a small geographic area. LANs usually have

Front 549

much higher data transfer rates than does a MAN and seldom if ever need leased telecommunication lines.

Front 550

A MAN is an intermediate based network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic

Front 551

area or region and can span a metropolitan area that local or state regulated utility commissions. A MAN is

Front 552

composed of several interconnected local area networks by bridging them with backbone lines.

Front 553

Define physical topology?

Back 553

A physical topology is the geometric shape created when the networking medic (fiber or cabling) is attached to the network nodes.

Front 554

What is a major disadvantage ofthe star topology?

Back 554

A major disadvantage to the star topology is that failure of the central hub can disable the entire network.

Front 555

How is a dual counter-rotating ring topology configured?

Back 555

"It contains an outer or primary ring, and an inner or secondary ring. Data likely flows counterclockwise on the primary or outer ring and clockwise on the secondary or inner ring."

Front 556

How must the ends of a bus cable be configured?

Back 556

You must terminate the ends of a bus topology with a resistor that matches the impedance of the cable.

Front 557

How is data transmitted in a logical bus topology?

Back 557

All data transmissions are sent simultaneously to all nodes on the backbone media. This broadcast transmission sends packets to all users in the network at the same time.

Front 558

State a major difference between the logical bus and logical ring topologies.

Back 558

Nodes on a logical bus topology do not regenerate data transmission while nodes on a logical ring topology do.

Front 559

"What does ISO consist of, and which member represents the US?"

Back 559

"The ISO is an international organization composed of national standards bodies from over 130 countries; ANSI is the US member, and acts as our sole representative to the organization."

Front 560

"What does lANA stand for, and what does it control?"

Back 560

"Internet Assigned Numbers Authority, worldwide IP Addresses which are registered and assigned by one of the four subordinate RIAR's"

Front 561

What are the development goals of the TCP/IP suite?

Back 561

"To allow communication among a variety of independent, multivendor systems."

Front 562

What are the five layers of the TCP/IP suite?

Back 562

"Physical, Network interface, Internet, Transport, Application."

Front 563

What do IP addresses identify?

Back 563

Both the individual node and the network that the node is attached to.

Front 564

What do network and host numbers identify?

Back 564

The network number identifies a specific network and must be assigned by IANA if the network is to be part of the Internet. The host number identifies a specific host (or any node) on a network and is assigned by the local network administrator.

Front 565

List the five classes of networks addresses and describe their purposes.

Back 565

1) Class A - Are used for large networks. (ATT/GOV)

Front 566

2) Class B - Are used for intermediate size networks.

Front 567

3) Class C - Are Used for smaller networks with about 250 nodes.

Front 568

4) Class D - are reserved for multicast addresses.

Front 569

5) Class E - are reserved for experimental use.

Front 570

What is a computer port?

Back 570

"The interface or point of attachment to a computer system or unit. Generally ports are located on the front or back of a system. External devices such as a keyboard, monitor, printer and mouse often are attached to a computer system by a cable."

Front 571

What is the difference between a serial and a parallel port?

Back 571

"A serial port is one type of interface that connects a device to the system unit by transmitting data one bit at a time; whereas, a parallel port is an interface that connects devices by transferring eight bits at a time."

Front 572

What were USB ports designed to do?

Back 572

To eliminate the need to install expansion cards into expansion slots.

Front 573

What is the most exploited port?

Back 573

Port 21-FTP

Front 574

What is port 443 used for?

Back 574

Port 443 _SSL is the default port used when you do credit card transactions with an e-commerce site.

Front 575

Which of these memory components is the smallest representation of data?

Back 575

Bit

Front 576

Which of these memory components is the smallest addressable unit of memory?

Back 576

Byte

Front 577

Which of these memory components is a unit of data that can store four hexadecimal digits?

Back 577

Word

Front 578

What bit length do computer instructions use as an addressing scheme?

Back 578

16

Front 579

Which is the most commonly used coding scheme for computer text files?

Back 579

ASCII

Front 580

Which numbering system characteristic is known as the base and indicates the number of

Front 581

digits in a particular numbering system?

Back 581

Radix

Front 582

"Which numbering system characteristic, the value of which is known as the power,"

Front 583

indicates how many times a number is multiplied by itself?

Back 583

Exponent.

Front 584

Which numeric representation is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?

Back 584

MSD

Front 585

Which numeric representation is the rightmost digit of a numeric value to include zeros?

Back 585

LSD

Front 586

Which is defined as the various physical environments through which communication

Front 587

transmission signals pass?

Back 587

Media

Front 588

Which is best defined as two or more computers connected together by one or more types of

Front 589

media to enable the computers to share resources and/or communicate with each other?

Back 589

Network

Front 590

Which is a device (such as a computer or router) used as a connection point on a computer network?

Back 590

Node

Front 591

Which is a single-run cable or network medium that connects or channels two or more

Front 592

computers together?

Back 592

Segment

Front 593

1) Which is a physical or logical arrangement supporting the attachment of any device to a connector or to another network device?

Back 593

Interface

Front 594

Which networking device modulates outgoing digital signals to analog signals for telephone line usage?

Back 594

Modem

Front 595

Which networking device receives a digital signal transmission via a medium and

Front 596

regenerates the signal along the next leg of the medium.

Back 596

Repeater

Front 597

Which networking device converts data from one network format type to another and can act as a bridge to another network?

Back 597

Gateway

Front 598

Which networking device channels incoming data from any of multiple input ports to a

Front 599

specified output port thus advancing data towards its intended destination?

Back 599

Switch

Front 600

Which network configuration is best suited for serving a small geographic area?

Back 600

Local Area Network

Front 601

Which network configuration is best suited for maintaining the Internet?

Back 601

Wide area network.

Front 602

Which network topology has all of the network nodes connected directly to a central

Front 603

controller?

Back 603

Physical Star

Front 604

Which network topology requires additional cabling and is subject to message

Front 605

bottlenecking?

Back 605

Physical Ring

Front 606

Which network topology has the advantage of having each node act as a repeater?

Back 606

Physical Ring

Front 607

Which network topology has all devices attached to the same transmission medium or cable backbone?

Back 607

Physical Bus

Front 608

Which network topology transmits all data simultaneously to all nodes on the backbone media?

Back 608

Logical Bus

Front 609

What is a set of rules that define how network communications are to take place?

Back 609

Protocols

Front 610

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable end-to-end also called host-to-host

Front 611

packet delivery?

Back 611

Transport

Front 612

Which protocol standard is one that has become popular without the guidance of any

Front 613

standards organization?

Back 613

De facto

Front 614

What is a family of protocols working together in a consistent fashion to provide

Front 615

communication services?

Back 615

Protocol Suite

Front 616

What is a layered set of protocols within a protocol suite working together to define

Front 617

communication between layers of the protocol suite?

Back 617

Protocol Stack

Front 618

In what year did transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) become the

Front 619

official transport mechanism for DOD Internet usage?

Back 619

1982

Front 620

Internet protocol is composed of 32 bits which consists of

Back 620

Four Sets of (8) Eight binary bits.

Front 621

Which class of Internet protocol addressing would you use for large networks?

Back 621

A

Front 622

Which port can transfer eight bits of data or one byte simultaneously through eight separate lines in a single cable?

Back 622

Parallel

Front 623

Which port would you use to encrypt credit card transactions with e-commerce sites?

Back 623

Port 443

Front 624

What is a software license?

Back 624

A legal agreement between the user and the software manufacturer that defines what the user can and cannot do with the software.

Front 625

What document represents legal proof of software ownership?

Back 625

A license certificate.

Front 626

What do license management actions ensure?

Back 626

That commercial off the shelf (COTS) software is correctly utilized with regards to how many users within a function actually have the software installed and running on their computers.

Front 627

What is the most common reason for installing new software?

Back 627

Upgrade to a newer version of a program you are already using.

Front 628

What is the objective DOD Enterprise Software Initiative (ESI)?

Back 628

"To reduce problems identified with procuring software for DOD; to include price, acquisition cost, distribution, training, maintenance, and support for common-use of compliant software standards."

Front 629

Define an operating system and explain what purpose it serves.

Back 629

"An operating system, or OS, is a program that manages all other programs in a computer."

Front 630

List some general functions an operating system performs.

Back 630

"1) Manages memory usage and distribution. 2) Process and stores local data. 3) Process and stores local data. 4) Data input entry from external devices (eg; keyboard, scanners and flash drives) 5) Graphical application presentation or output."

Front 631

Describe an operational environment.

Back 631

It is like a second set of resources added to the operating system to provide enhanced services.

Front 632

What is the main difference between an operating system and an operating environment?

Back 632

An operating environment cant be run by itself. It is dependant and relies on the operating system for resource allocation.

Front 633

Define a file and what part of it must be unique?

Back 633

"An entity of data available to computer system users, to include personal computers, that is capable of being manipulated as an entity. A file must have a unique name within its own directory."

Front 634

Define encryption and decryption.

Back 634

Encryption is the conversion of data into cipher text. Decryption is the process of converting encrypted data back into its original form so it can once again be understood.

Front 635

What is VoIP?

Back 635

VOIP is a term for a set of facilities used to manage the delivery of voice information over the Internet.

Front 636

How does VoIP differ from traditional phone circuits?

Back 636

VoIP involves sending the voice information in digital form in discrete packets rather than by using the traditional circuit-committed protocols of the public switched telephone network.

Front 637

State one advantage of using VoIP.

Back 637

A major advantage of using VOIP and Internet Telephone is that it avoids the tolls charged by ordinary telephone service.

Front 638

What is IPv4?

Back 638

"IPv4 is an early version of the IP protocol that is still in use on the Internet today. IpV4 uses a 32-bit addressing scheme, represented by four 8-bit (0-255) numbers separated by periods."

Front 639

What problem has been created by the prolonged use of IPv4?

Back 639

The prolonged use of IpV4 has created an Internet address shortage problem.

Front 640

How does IPv6 alleviate the Internet address shortage problem?

Back 640

IPv6 has IP addresses of which are lengthened from 32 bits to 128 bits. This extension anticipates

Front 641

considerable future growth of the Internet and provides relief for what was perceived as an impending shortage of network addresses.

Front 642

When was the Air Force information operations (IO) doctrine finalized and published?

Back 642

Aug-98

Front 643

According to the Air Force's operations doctrine what are the two pillars of Information

Front 644

Operations (IO)?

Back 644

Information Warfare and Information-In-Warfare.

Front 645

What are Air Force network operating instructions (AFNOIs) and what are they used for?

Back 645

AFNOIs are directive specialized publications providing operating procedures and checklists for network

Front 646

"operations. AFNOIs are used to document standard processes as well as operate, maintain, or troubleshoot"

Front 647

network software and equipment and are generated for technical subjects not covered by Air Force

Front 648

publications or technical orders.

Front 649

How do AF policy directives relate to AF instructions?

Back 649

Air Force PD's are drafted at the Air Force level and provide guidance for AFI's. AFI's are drafted at the MAJCOM and Field Operating Agency (FOA) level.

Front 650

What do operation instructions assign and how do they differ from AF instructions?

Back 650

"OI's assign directive actions, responsibilities, and prescribe procedures. OI's differ from AFI's in that they are written at a much lower organizational level such as a squadron or flight level."

Front 651

"Illegal distribution of software can subject a seller to arrest and felony charges with fines up to $250,000 and prison terms up to how many years?"

Back 651

5 years.

Front 652

When must each computer have a license to legally access networked software?

Back 652

Prior to Utilization.

Front 653

What is an entity of data available to computer system users and is capable of being

Front 654

manipulated as an entity?

Back 654

A File

Front 655

One of the most commonly used methods of encryption is

Back 655

Cryptography.

Front 656

Encrypting File Systems (EFS) provide file security by

Back 656

Encrypting each file with a randomly generated key.

Front 657

The two major reasons why many users are attracted to Internet protocol (VoIP) services are

Back 657

lower costs and increased functionality.

Front 658

In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated the first drafts of joint doctrine?

Back 658

1995

Front 659

Which publications are drafted at the Air Force level and provide guidance for AFIs?

Back 659

AF policy Directives

Front 660

"Which publication are guidance documents for procedures that contain examples for performing standard tasks, or supporting education and training programs?"

Back 660

Air Force Manuals.

Front 661

Which are informational publications which are "how to" documents?

Back 661

AF Pamphlets

Front 662

What reason would you study your CDC's?

Back 662

To pass them.

Front 663

How is OPSEC defined?

Back 663

OPSEC is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and activities.

Front 664

How is operational effectiveness enhanced?

Back 664

Operational effectiveness is enhanced when commanders and other decision-makers apply OPSEC principles from the earliest stages of planning.

Front 665

Name the 5 steps in the OPSEC process.

Back 665

"Identification of Critical Information, threat assessment, vulnerability analysis, risk assessment, and apply OPSEC measures."

Front 666

What is the goal of OPSEC?

Back 666

"The goal of OPSEC is to identify information and observable activities relating to mission capabilities, limitations and intentions in order to prevent exploitation by our adversaries."

Front 667

Which security programs does OPSEC encompass?

Back 667

OPSEC encompasses all Air Force Security Programs.

Front 668

How does a survey differ from an inspection?

Back 668

A survey attempts to produce an adversaries view of the operation or activity being surveyed. A security inspection seeks to determine if an organization is in compliance with the appropriate security directives and regulations.

Front 669

How does the Air Force control critical information?

Back 669

The Air Force must plan and execute OPSEC measures as early as possible during both mission and acquisition planning by actively anticipating the actions of potential adversaries.