• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/50

Click to flip

50 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. (001) What unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and when required by the
Expeditionary Theater Distribution Center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at
a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?
a. JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.
b. JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.
c. JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
d. JFBMM – Materiel Control.
c. JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
2. (001) What unit type code (UTC) provides supply expertise during initial beddown at a main
operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?
a. JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.
b. JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.
c. JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
d. JFBFM – Initial Supply Beddown Package.
d. JFBFM – Initial Supply Beddown Package.
3. (001) What unit type code (UTC) provides materiel management support to accountable officers,
responsible officers, and responsible persons, in the control and accountability of class IX and
class VII at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security
location (CSL)?
a. JFBME – Superintendent Materiel Mgt Equipment.
b. JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.
c. JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.
d. JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
a. JFBME – Superintendent Materiel Mgt Equipment.
4. (001) What unit type code (UTC) monitors the overall maintenance and supply interface and
resolves supply support problems?
a. JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.
b. JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
c. JFBSL – Maintenance Supply Liaison.
d. JFBMM – Materiel Control.
c. JFBSL – Maintenance Supply Liaison.
5. (002) When does the selection panel convene which is chaired by the 2S career field manager
(CFM)?
a. August/September.
b. July/August.
c. June/July.
d. May/June.
d. May/June.
6. (002) Who notifies the individual by message not later than 30 days after selection?
a. Head Quarters Air Force Personnel Center Materiel Management Functional Manager (HQ
AFPC/DPAA).
b. Air Force Material Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Center (ALC).
c. Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R.
d. Major Command (MAJCOM)/A4R.
b. Air Force Material Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Center (ALC).
7. (003) What flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution
of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal
property?
a. Squadron superintendent.
b. Vehicle management flight.
c. Materiel Management flight.
d. Deployment and distribution flight.
d. Deployment and distribution flight.
8. (003) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight is the primary liaison between customers
and the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?
a. Fuels Management Flight.
b. Vehicle Management Flight.
c. Materiel Management Flight.
d. Deployment and Distribution Flight.
c. Materiel Management Flight.
9. (003) Who is responsible for the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) unit control center (UCC)
and also maintains the squadron’s recall roster?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Mobility Support.
b. Materiel Management Flight.
c. Squadron Readiness.
d. Logistics Manager.
c. Squadron Readiness.
10. (003) Who serves as the materiel management liaison and equipment accountability authority for
wing customers?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Mobility Support.
b. Customer Support section.
c. Squadron Readiness.
d. Logistics Manager.
b. Customer Support section.
11. (004) Who is responsible for providing supply support to maintenance activities?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).
b. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
c. Maintenance Officer.
d. Operations Officer.
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).
12. (004) Who coordinates maintenance and supply actions, manage supply transactions for their
assigned maintenance activity, manage the production of assets in the repair cycle, resolve supply
support problems and report aircraft parts status to maintenance supervision?
a. Maintenance officer.
b. Maintenance personnel.
c. Decentralized supply support personnel.
d. Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).
c. Decentralized supply support personnel.
13. (005) What is the central, process driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the
Expeditionary Logistics for the 21st Century (eLog21) campaign?
a. Supply Chain Operation (SCO).
b. Supply Chain Management (SCM).
c. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).
d. Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC).
d. Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC).
14. (005) How many functions does the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)
perform?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
c. 3.
15. (005) How many primary organizations comprise the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center
(AFGLSC)?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
c. 3.
16. (006) What Air Force manual (AFMAN) governs Materiel Management?
a. 36–123, Supply Manual.
b. 23–110, USAF Supply Manual.
c. 36–2108, Enlisted Classification.
d. 23–2308, Material Classification.
b. 23–110, USAF Supply Manual.
17. (006) How often is Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, published?
a. Annually.
b. Semi-annually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Monthly.
c. Quarterly.
18. (006) What are provided for each volume, part and chapter of Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23–
110, USAF Supply Manual?
a. Table of contents.
b. Search Tools.
c. Hyperlinks.
d. Find Tools.
a. Table of contents.
19. (007) Which record retrieval code is used to obtain inquiry input on the repair cycle data?
a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.
d. 5.
20. (008) What is an Air Mobility Command air transportation system that supports fixed, deployed,
and mobile sites?
a. Global Transportation Network (GTN).
b. Global Decision Support System (GDSS).
c. Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
d. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
d. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
21. (008) What is the Air Mobility Command’s (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system
supporting Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission
management?
a. Global Transportation Network (GTN).
b. Global Decision Support System (GDSS).
c. Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
d. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
b. Global Decision Support System (GDSS).
22. (009) What is an automated logistics decision support tool which predicts the combat Capabilities
of tactical, strategic, and airlift weapon systems for a given set of operations plans, logistics
assets, and logistics performance factors?
a. Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM).
b. Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS).
c. Requirement/Execution Availability Logistics Module (REALM).
d. Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS).
a. Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM).
23. (009) What provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance
community?
a. TRACKER.
b. Propulsion Requirements System (PRS).
c. Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS).
d. Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS).
Please
b. Propulsion Requirements System (PRS).
24. (010) Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system
loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.
a. I.
25. (010) Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the
computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.
b. II.
26. (010) A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected
a. over the telephone with the materiel management system control center.
b. on an Air Force suggestion form.
c. in the next scheduled release.
d. as workload permits.
c. in the next scheduled release.
27. (011) How often are surveillance visits to all materiel management functions scheduled?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually.
d. Annually.
28. (011) Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable officer
function?
a. Check in and out with the flight chief.
b. Submit a written report within 15 workdays of the exit briefing.
c. Follow the standard Air Force directive for conducting such a visit.
d. Bypass areas that have not had deficiencies within the past three years.
a. Check in and out with the flight chief.
29. (011) If you find deficiencies during a surveillance visit to a function, you must furnish a detailed
written report to the flight chief within
a. 15 days after checking in.
b. five days after checking in.
c. 15 workdays after the exit briefing.
d. five workdays after the exit briefing.
d. five workdays after the exit briefing.
30. (011) A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days
of the date on the surveillance report?
a. 7.
b. 10.
c. 15.
d. 30.
c. 15.
31. (011) Who is the primary point of contact (POC) for special topics designated by the materiel
management officer or Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander?
a. Procedures element.
b. Customer service.
c. Computer operations.
d. Receiving section.
a. Procedures element.
32. (012) An effective analysis program must be based on
a. mission requirements.
b. management seminars.
c. organizational objectives.
d. the analysis of operating instructions.
c. organizational objectives.
33. (012) Experience and standards data are factors used in which type of analysis?
a. Trend.
b. Problem.
c. Important.
d. Performance.
a. Trend.
34. (013) A basic ingredient of any analysis program is
a. charts.
b. opinions.
c. a database.
d. reliable and valid data.
d. reliable and valid data.
35. (013) You should request “as required” computer products by using the
a. AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request.
b. AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request.
c. DD Form 1530, Supply Request.
d. telephone or message only.
a. AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request.
36. (014) What forms can management indicators take?
a. Subjective and informational.
b. Informational and available.
c. Quantitative or qualitative.
d. Available or subjective.
c. Quantitative or qualitative.
37. (014) Stockage effectiveness is the basic measure of
a. issue effectiveness.
b. supply support to the customer.
c. supply support to the contractor.
d. how often an item was requested.
b. supply support to the customer.
38. (015) How is a decision normally made on whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of
property?
a. Automatically by the automated general support operating program (AGSOP).
b. Automatically under the Materiel Management System program control.
c. Externally by the accountable officer.
d. Externally by the flight chief.
b. Automatically under the Materiel Management System program control.
39. (015) What product does the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager use to review
non-reimbursable issues from the SMAG?
a. R01.
b. Q07.
c. D18.
d. D20.
d. D20.
40. (015) Who must approve the use of credit code “Y’ in the materiel management system program
control before processing a stock fund turn-in?
a. Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager.
b. Maintenance or supply inspector.
c. Division SMAG officer.
d. Accounting and finance.
a. Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager.
41. (016) Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused
by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron/Commander (LRS/CC).
b. All Air Force members and employees.
c. Management and systems flight.
d. Maintenance officer.
b. All Air Force members and employees.
42. (016) What can be assessed if it appears that an individual’s actions, or failure to act, constituted
negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
a. Letter of counseling.
b. Financial liability.
c. Letter of reprimand.
d. Fine.
b. Financial liability.
43. (017) Where are all suspense files of the Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) kept?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
b. Stock Control.
c. Receiving.
d. Inspection.
b. Stock Control.
44. (017) Who is responsible for evaluating and controlling all incoming Supply Discrepancy Reports
(SDR) from activities that receive discrepant shipments from your materiel management account?
a. Procedures.
b. Stock Control.
c. Receiving.
d. Inspection.
a. Procedures.
45. (018) What system prepares data reports for off-base distribution?
a. Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).
b. Supply Interface System (SIFS).
c. ADRSS II.
d. User.
a. Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).
46. (018) Who must review the residue portion of the supply interface system end-of-day report to
ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?
a. Accountable officer.
b. Individual flight chiefs.
c. Procedures and accountability.
d. Management and system officer.
c. Procedures and accountability.
47. (019) Who maintains accountability by validating all transaction images have processed?
a. Post post control team (PPCT) Chief.
b. Procedures and Accountability.
c. Individual flight chiefs.
d. PPCT member.
a. Post post control team (PPCT) Chief.
48. (019) How often is long term performed?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually.
d. Annually.
49. (020) Who may force delete rejects using the reject processor program?
a. Accountable officer.
b. Reject monitors.
c. Procedures and Analysis.
d. Management and system officer.
b. Reject monitors.
50. (020) What listing shows all rejects cleared by the monitor?
a. D818.
b. D04.
c. D11.
d. D20.
d. D20.