2S071 Volume 1

Front 1

1. (001) What unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and when required by the
Expeditionary Theater Distribution Center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at
a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?
a. JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.
b. JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.
c. JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
d. JFBMM – Materiel Control.

Back 1

c. JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.

Front 2

2. (001) What unit type code (UTC) provides supply expertise during initial beddown at a main
operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?
a. JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.
b. JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.
c. JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
d. JFBFM – Initial Supply Beddown Package.

Back 2

d. JFBFM – Initial Supply Beddown Package.

Front 3

3. (001) What unit type code (UTC) provides materiel management support to accountable officers,
responsible officers, and responsible persons, in the control and accountability of class IX and
class VII at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security
location (CSL)?
a. JFBME – Superintendent Materiel Mgt Equipment.
b. JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.
c. JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.
d. JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.

Back 3

a. JFBME – Superintendent Materiel Mgt Equipment.

Front 4

4. (001) What unit type code (UTC) monitors the overall maintenance and supply interface and
resolves supply support problems?
a. JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.
b. JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
c. JFBSL – Maintenance Supply Liaison.
d. JFBMM – Materiel Control.

Back 4

c. JFBSL – Maintenance Supply Liaison.

Front 5

5. (002) When does the selection panel convene which is chaired by the 2S career field manager
(CFM)?
a. August/September.
b. July/August.
c. June/July.
d. May/June.

Back 5

d. May/June.

Front 6

6. (002) Who notifies the individual by message not later than 30 days after selection?
a. Head Quarters Air Force Personnel Center Materiel Management Functional Manager (HQ
AFPC/DPAA).
b. Air Force Material Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Center (ALC).
c. Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R.
d. Major Command (MAJCOM)/A4R.

Back 6

b. Air Force Material Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Center (ALC).

Front 7

7. (003) What flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution
of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal
property?
a. Squadron superintendent.
b. Vehicle management flight.
c. Materiel Management flight.
d. Deployment and distribution flight.

Back 7

d. Deployment and distribution flight.

Front 8

8. (003) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight is the primary liaison between customers
and the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?
a. Fuels Management Flight.
b. Vehicle Management Flight.
c. Materiel Management Flight.
d. Deployment and Distribution Flight.

Back 8

c. Materiel Management Flight.

Front 9

9. (003) Who is responsible for the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) unit control center (UCC)
and also maintains the squadron’s recall roster?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Mobility Support.
b. Materiel Management Flight.
c. Squadron Readiness.
d. Logistics Manager.

Back 9

c. Squadron Readiness.

Front 10

10. (003) Who serves as the materiel management liaison and equipment accountability authority for
wing customers?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Mobility Support.
b. Customer Support section.
c. Squadron Readiness.
d. Logistics Manager.

Back 10

b. Customer Support section.

Front 11

11. (004) Who is responsible for providing supply support to maintenance activities?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).
b. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
c. Maintenance Officer.
d. Operations Officer.

Back 11

a. Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).

Front 12

12. (004) Who coordinates maintenance and supply actions, manage supply transactions for their
assigned maintenance activity, manage the production of assets in the repair cycle, resolve supply
support problems and report aircraft parts status to maintenance supervision?
a. Maintenance officer.
b. Maintenance personnel.
c. Decentralized supply support personnel.
d. Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).

Back 12

c. Decentralized supply support personnel.

Front 13

13. (005) What is the central, process driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the
Expeditionary Logistics for the 21st Century (eLog21) campaign?
a. Supply Chain Operation (SCO).
b. Supply Chain Management (SCM).
c. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).
d. Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC).

Back 13

d. Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC).

Front 14

14. (005) How many functions does the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)
perform?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

Back 14

c. 3.

Front 15

15. (005) How many primary organizations comprise the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center
(AFGLSC)?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

Back 15

c. 3.

Front 16

16. (006) What Air Force manual (AFMAN) governs Materiel Management?
a. 36–123, Supply Manual.
b. 23–110, USAF Supply Manual.
c. 36–2108, Enlisted Classification.
d. 23–2308, Material Classification.

Back 16

b. 23–110, USAF Supply Manual.

Front 17

17. (006) How often is Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, published?
a. Annually.
b. Semi-annually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Monthly.

Back 17

c. Quarterly.

Front 18

18. (006) What are provided for each volume, part and chapter of Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23–
110, USAF Supply Manual?
a. Table of contents.
b. Search Tools.
c. Hyperlinks.
d. Find Tools.

Back 18

a. Table of contents.

Front 19

19. (007) Which record retrieval code is used to obtain inquiry input on the repair cycle data?
a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.

Back 19

d. 5.

Front 20

20. (008) What is an Air Mobility Command air transportation system that supports fixed, deployed,
and mobile sites?
a. Global Transportation Network (GTN).
b. Global Decision Support System (GDSS).
c. Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
d. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).

Back 20

d. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).

Front 21

21. (008) What is the Air Mobility Command’s (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system
supporting Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission
management?
a. Global Transportation Network (GTN).
b. Global Decision Support System (GDSS).
c. Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
d. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).

Back 21

b. Global Decision Support System (GDSS).

Front 22

22. (009) What is an automated logistics decision support tool which predicts the combat Capabilities
of tactical, strategic, and airlift weapon systems for a given set of operations plans, logistics
assets, and logistics performance factors?
a. Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM).
b. Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS).
c. Requirement/Execution Availability Logistics Module (REALM).
d. Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS).

Back 22

a. Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM).

Front 23

23. (009) What provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance
community?
a. TRACKER.
b. Propulsion Requirements System (PRS).
c. Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS).
d. Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS).
Please

Back 23

b. Propulsion Requirements System (PRS).

Front 24

24. (010) Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system
loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

Back 24

a. I.

Front 25

25. (010) Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the
computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

Back 25

b. II.

Front 26

26. (010) A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected
a. over the telephone with the materiel management system control center.
b. on an Air Force suggestion form.
c. in the next scheduled release.
d. as workload permits.

Back 26

c. in the next scheduled release.

Front 27

27. (011) How often are surveillance visits to all materiel management functions scheduled?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually.

Back 27

d. Annually.

Front 28

28. (011) Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable officer
function?
a. Check in and out with the flight chief.
b. Submit a written report within 15 workdays of the exit briefing.
c. Follow the standard Air Force directive for conducting such a visit.
d. Bypass areas that have not had deficiencies within the past three years.

Back 28

a. Check in and out with the flight chief.

Front 29

29. (011) If you find deficiencies during a surveillance visit to a function, you must furnish a detailed
written report to the flight chief within
a. 15 days after checking in.
b. five days after checking in.
c. 15 workdays after the exit briefing.
d. five workdays after the exit briefing.

Back 29

d. five workdays after the exit briefing.

Front 30

30. (011) A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days
of the date on the surveillance report?
a. 7.
b. 10.
c. 15.
d. 30.

Back 30

c. 15.

Front 31

31. (011) Who is the primary point of contact (POC) for special topics designated by the materiel
management officer or Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander?
a. Procedures element.
b. Customer service.
c. Computer operations.
d. Receiving section.

Back 31

a. Procedures element.

Front 32

32. (012) An effective analysis program must be based on
a. mission requirements.
b. management seminars.
c. organizational objectives.
d. the analysis of operating instructions.

Back 32

c. organizational objectives.

Front 33

33. (012) Experience and standards data are factors used in which type of analysis?
a. Trend.
b. Problem.
c. Important.
d. Performance.

Back 33

a. Trend.

Front 34

34. (013) A basic ingredient of any analysis program is
a. charts.
b. opinions.
c. a database.
d. reliable and valid data.

Back 34

d. reliable and valid data.

Front 35

35. (013) You should request “as required” computer products by using the
a. AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request.
b. AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request.
c. DD Form 1530, Supply Request.
d. telephone or message only.

Back 35

a. AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request.

Front 36

36. (014) What forms can management indicators take?
a. Subjective and informational.
b. Informational and available.
c. Quantitative or qualitative.
d. Available or subjective.

Back 36

c. Quantitative or qualitative.

Front 37

37. (014) Stockage effectiveness is the basic measure of
a. issue effectiveness.
b. supply support to the customer.
c. supply support to the contractor.
d. how often an item was requested.

Back 37

b. supply support to the customer.

Front 38

38. (015) How is a decision normally made on whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of
property?
a. Automatically by the automated general support operating program (AGSOP).
b. Automatically under the Materiel Management System program control.
c. Externally by the accountable officer.
d. Externally by the flight chief.

Back 38

b. Automatically under the Materiel Management System program control.

Front 39

39. (015) What product does the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager use to review
non-reimbursable issues from the SMAG?
a. R01.
b. Q07.
c. D18.
d. D20.

Back 39

d. D20.

Front 40

40. (015) Who must approve the use of credit code “Y’ in the materiel management system program
control before processing a stock fund turn-in?
a. Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager.
b. Maintenance or supply inspector.
c. Division SMAG officer.
d. Accounting and finance.

Back 40

a. Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager.

Front 41

41. (016) Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused
by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron/Commander (LRS/CC).
b. All Air Force members and employees.
c. Management and systems flight.
d. Maintenance officer.

Back 41

b. All Air Force members and employees.

Front 42

42. (016) What can be assessed if it appears that an individual’s actions, or failure to act, constituted
negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
a. Letter of counseling.
b. Financial liability.
c. Letter of reprimand.
d. Fine.

Back 42

b. Financial liability.

Front 43

43. (017) Where are all suspense files of the Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) kept?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
b. Stock Control.
c. Receiving.
d. Inspection.

Back 43

b. Stock Control.

Front 44

44. (017) Who is responsible for evaluating and controlling all incoming Supply Discrepancy Reports
(SDR) from activities that receive discrepant shipments from your materiel management account?
a. Procedures.
b. Stock Control.
c. Receiving.
d. Inspection.

Back 44

a. Procedures.

Front 45

45. (018) What system prepares data reports for off-base distribution?
a. Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).
b. Supply Interface System (SIFS).
c. ADRSS II.
d. User.

Back 45

a. Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).

Front 46

46. (018) Who must review the residue portion of the supply interface system end-of-day report to
ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?
a. Accountable officer.
b. Individual flight chiefs.
c. Procedures and accountability.
d. Management and system officer.

Back 46

c. Procedures and accountability.

Front 47

47. (019) Who maintains accountability by validating all transaction images have processed?
a. Post post control team (PPCT) Chief.
b. Procedures and Accountability.
c. Individual flight chiefs.
d. PPCT member.

Back 47

a. Post post control team (PPCT) Chief.

Front 48

48. (019) How often is long term performed?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually.

Back 48

d. Annually.

Front 49

49. (020) Who may force delete rejects using the reject processor program?
a. Accountable officer.
b. Reject monitors.
c. Procedures and Analysis.
d. Management and system officer.

Back 49

b. Reject monitors.

Front 50

50. (020) What listing shows all rejects cleared by the monitor?
a. D818.
b. D04.
c. D11.
d. D20.

Back 50

d. D20.