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125 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

what are the manifestations of hyperthyroidism called

thyrotoxicosis

what are the key post op complications that may occur after a total/subtotal thyroidectomy?

Hemorrhage, Resp. distress

what medication will a patient need for life after a total thyroidectomy

synthroid for life

what is the best treatment for a thyroid storm

treat symptoms

what must you do when a pt is experiencing a myexedema coma

protect the airway, have suction at bedside

what is a precipitating cause of myxedema coma?

precipitated by illness

what are manifestations of hypothyroid?

fatigue, weight gain, depression, lethargy

what is a key intervention & what med is given for hypothyroidism

prevent hypotension and bradycardia, maintain HR >60, levothyroxine/synthroid

what symptoms may thyroid cancer present with

hyperthyroid symptoms

what are some causes of hyperparathyroidism

cancer, vitamin d deficiency

what are the interventions of hypoparathyroidism

correct hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, vitamin d deficiency

what is graves disease

autoimmune disorder, thyroid forms a goiter and increases hormone secretion

symptoms of graves disease

exophthalmos, pretibial myxedema

what is the discharge teaching for uveitis

seperate tube of antibiotic for each eye, apply ointment from inner canthus to outer canthus

cardiac assessment

assess bp, pulse

Stroke Volume

the amount of blood pumped from the left ventricle each beath, affected by preload, afterload and contractility

what should you ask the pt when doing a cardiovascular assessment

pt history, nutritional therapy, family history, genetic risk, current health problems

what are some physical assessment steps for the cardiovascular system

general appearance (dusky, diaphoretic), cyanosis, rubor, clubbing, orthostatic hypotension

what lab levels should be monitored in someone taking a statin

liver enzymes

what level should a nurse be concerned with in a pt who has recieved multiple blood transfusions

elevated potassium

an older adult with burns present with WBC 10,000, afebrile, pale wound, edema. What should the RN do?

take blood and wound cultures

what is trigeminal neuralgia

causes sudden intense facial spasms and pain, chronic unilateral pain, nerve pain is sharp, shooting, burning, jabbing

what to treat trigeminial neuralgia with

AED's (neurotinin, lyrica). chemical nerve blocks (lidocaine)

what is external otitis

swimmers ear. edema and redness of the ear canal, will have mild itching or pain

what is tinnitus and what is it a feature of?

ringing in the ears, it is a feature of Meniere's disease

what should you teach your pt about ear care at home

never put anything in ear canal, clean with warm water or 50/50 mix use 2-3 drops of mineral oil if cerumen is thick and sticky

what are some key communication tips for those who are hard of hearing

provide well lit, quiet environment, speak slowly in a deep voice, face pt when speaking

what is the caloric test for the inner ear

tests for damage to nerves in the ear, first cold and then warm water is placed in the ear to test the reaction

what is a PTCA

percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty, minimally invasive procedure where a cath is placed into femoral artery and ran to the coronary artery to open a narrowing vessel

what is a tympanoplasty

reconstructionof the middle ear to improve conductive hearing loss. Post-op care, use steriletechnique to change dressing, keep patient flat in bed with operative side ofheat turned up for 12 hours, do not place anything in ear canal (exceptdressing) minimize pressure in ear.

what is a cardiac cath
procedureused to diagnose and treat cardiovascular conditions. A catheter is inserted inneck, groin, or arm and threaded through blood vessels to your heart. It isdone to check blood flow in arteries and to check the chambers and valves

what is an aortic aneurysm

dilation of the aorta greater than 1.5 times normal size. Mayhave abdominal, back or neck pain. Cause weakness in the wall of the aorta andincrease risk of rupture which can lead to massive internal bleeding.Maintenance of aneurysm is to maintain blood pressure.<?xml:namespace prefix = o ns = "urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:office" />


what is heart failure

inability of the heart to work effectively as a pump, includes any condition that impairs the ability of the ventrucles to fill or eject blood

what is left sided heart failure

causes back flow into lungs, caused by HTN, CAD, and valvular disease. There are 2 types systolic and diastolic. usually comes before right. echo is the best diagnostic

clinical manifestations of right sided heart failure

JVD, increased abdominal girth, dependant edema, hepatomegaly, hepatojuglar reflux, ascites

what is used to test the blink reflex in a blind patient

air bolus

what does HTN do to the retina

causes vascular changes, can increase intraocular pressure and tear retina

what is sleep apnea

breathing disruption during sleep, muscles relax and tongue and neck structures are displaced, causing increased CO2 and decreased pH

manifestations of sleep apnea

excessive daytime sleepiness, inability to concentrate, irritability, headaches

what is a myocardial infarction

heart attack, death of heart muscle due to ischemia, MONA is immediate treatment. Typically caused by blockage

What is BOOP pneumonia

decreased the vital capacity which is the ability to fully empty the lungs on exhalation

what must a RN have before preparing a pt for a procedure

signed informed consent

what meds are used for Alzheimer's and how do they work?

cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil/Aricept) slows the onset of cognitive decline. Also may be given antidepressants and antipsychotics

What is a bronchoscopy

procedure done to view the airway. Examine the throat, larynx, trachea, and lower airways

what is cushings disease

over secretion of cortisol, may cause brittle bones

What is glucagon

a regulatory hormone that counteracts the effect of insulin and prevents hypoglycemia by promoting the release of glucose from liver stores- secreted by pancreas

what is insulin

prevents hyperglycemia by allowing cells to take up, use, and store carbohydrates, protein and fat

insulin is needed to move _________ into __________ cells.

triglycerides; fat

glucose and insulin are the only source of energy for what system

CNS

does the brain store glucose

no, the body must maintain a steady level for the brain to use

what hormones increase blood glucose levels

epinephrine, norepinephrine, GH, cortisol

clinical manifestations of insulin absence

ketones present in urine, acidosis, kussmal (deep, fast) respirations, fruity breath

diagnostic criteria for DKA

blood glucose >250, arterial pH <7.3 bicard <18, low PaCO2 to compensate for acidosis, moderate ketonemia or ketonuria

what will decrease the risk of chronic diabetic complications

hyperglycemic, HTN, hyperlipidemia

cardiovascular complication that may arise in a patient with DKA

tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension

What sort of disorder is DM II?

progressive disorder

in type II DM what does insulin prevent

insulin prevents catabolism not hyperglycemia

what level should a fasting plasma glucose be

70-126

hbA1c

4-6%

Serum osmalarity does what as a result of polyuria

increases high is dry

oral insulin secretagogues do what

stimulate insulin release from the pancreas

oral insulin sensitizers do what

sensitizes insulin and decreases liver glucose production

what drugs will potentiate hypoglycemia when taken with a sulfonylurea

NSAID's, coumadin, alcohol, tricyclic antidepressants, ACE inhibitors

What drugs worses hyperglycemia when taken with a sulfonylurea

adrenalin, estrogen, calcium channel blockers, lasix, dilantin

how do alpha glucosidase inhibitors work

delays absorption of carbohydrates

what is the peak for NPH

4-12hrs

insulin does what to potassium

drives into cells, watch for low potassium

what is a basal insulin

gives a constant amount from the pancreas in between meals

what is a prandial insulin

additional insulin production to prevent glucose elevation after meals

what diet therapy should you provide for diabetic pt

45-65% of diet should be healthy carbs, moderate alcohol intake only

what is keratoplasty

surgery on the cornea, especially corneal transplantation

what is the connection between heart failure and thyroid replacement medications

activation of the neuroendocrine system is responsible for progressive decline in heart function

what is natrecor

human B-type natriuretic peptide used to reduce afterload, given IV in ICU usually

upper respiratory tract

nose, pharynx, larynx, sinuses

lower respiratory tract

trachea, bronchus, bronchi, bronchioles, lungs, alveoli

how is oxygen carried through the body

on hemoglobin

surfactant

fatty protein that reduces surface tension of alveoli

how many lobes are in each lung

right 3, left 2

what is atelectasis

collapsing of alveoli

what does tenderness on palpation of the sinuses signify

infection and inflammation

what position should the pt be in when assessing the thorax

sitting up

upon inspection of the tongue and sublingual area what finding would signify oxygenation problmes

central cyanosis in the sublingual area

what is barrel chest a sign of

COPD

what are the ratios for AP diameter

1:2, 5:7

what is flail chest and what does it look like

flail chest is cause by a rib fracture and causes the chest to suck in

what is fremitus

99 test, check for vibrations all the way down

what is percussion used for

evaluates the level of diaphragm during resp. cycle

how to check to see if a rub is pleural or pericardial rub

have pt hold breath, if rub is present it is pericardial

how many listening points are there when assesing lung sounds

8 front 10 back

what is a pneumothorax

collapsed lung

follow up care for bronchoscopy

test for a gag

follow up care for pt who has had a lung biopsy

vitals, breath sounds q4, assess for resp. distress, report reduced/absent breath sounds immediately, monitor for hemoptysis (bloody sputum)

hypoxemia

low levels of oxygen in the blood

hypoxia

decreased tissue oxygenation

a trach tube obsturction or dislodgement

have an orbturator and replacement trach at bedside at all times

what is a nursing priority for those with noninfectious resp. problems?

promote oxygenation by ensuring a patent airway

with a fracture of the nose what do you want to assess for

patent airway, and signs of CSF leak

what do you want to remind pt after rhinoplasty

limit bearing down or straining

what is asthma

intermittent and reversible airflow obstruction affecting airways only not alveoli

what are the main causes of asthma attacks

inflammation and hyper responsiveness

what to tell pt before PFT

no smoking for 6 hrs before test, do not use bronchodilators before or during test

what is asthmaticus

severe ongoing astham attacks

what is anoxia

no oxygen

what is cor pulmonale

RT side heart failure caused by pulmonary disease

only tape used for chest tube dressing

silk tape, drsg must be occulsive

if a chest tube becomes dislodges what should you do

cover insertion site with a sterile gauze and tape on 3 sides

what is a key intervention for a pt post thoracotomy

assess alignment of trachea

what is pharyngitis

sore throat

s/s pharyngitis

odynophagia (painful swallowing) dysphagia, fever, redness, enlarged lymph nodes

treatment for laryngitis

focused on relief and prevention. voice rest, stema inhalation, increase fluid intake, throat lozenges

interventions for pt with pneumonia

o2 above 95%, manage hypoxemia, prevent airway obstruction, drink 2L a day, prevent sepsis

s/s TB

night sweats, cough, mucopurulent sputum, blood streaks

what is a pulmonary empyema

collection of pus in the pleural space

how is HTN defined

systolic BP of 140 or higher and diastolic BP of higher then 90

elevated levels of what lead to artherosclerosis

LDL, cholesterol

what makes up the PNS

12 cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves, ANS

what makes up the autonomic nervous system

sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system

what are the key assessments for neuro

LOC/orientation

when pt is scheduled for CT what should nurse assess for

allergic response (shellfish, iodine) kidney function test

in acute or status epilepticus, what meds should you give

ativan, valium, dilantin

what med should you not administer with dilantin

warfarin- bleed risk

what do you want to monitor when giving dilantin

kidney function test

what is one of the key clinical manifestation of meningitis

nuchal rigidity (stiff neck)

when recieving drug therapy for meningitis what should be done frequently

neuro checks

what meds to give to treat parkinsons

mirapex, reequip, Levadopa-Carvadopa (sinemet, symmetrel/amantadine)