2014 Introduction To Osteopathic-Quiz 2

Front 1

1. If you have not eaten for hours and feel hungry and weak:
A. ATP will be high, ADP will be low, NAD will be mostly oxidized (NAD+)
B. ATP will be high, ADP will be low, NAD will be mostly reduced (NADH)
C. ATP will be low, ADP will be low, NAD will be half reduced
D. ATP will be low, ADP will be high, NAD will be mostly oxidized ( NAD+)
E. ATP will be low, ADP will be high, NAD will be mostly reduced ( NADH)

Back 1

D. ATP will be low, ADP will be high, NAD will be mostly oxidized ( NAD+)

Front 2

2. DNA has:
A. Complementary bases connected by covalent bonds
B. Equal amounts of purine and pyrimidine bases
C. Equal numbers of guanines and thymines
D. Nucleosomes connected by histone proteins
E. Sugar-phosphate chains on the inside of the helix

Back 2

B. Equal amounts of purine and pyrimidine bases

D. Nucleosomes connected by histone proteins

Front 3

3. Which one of the following removes the primers from newly synthesized DNA?
A. DNA helicase
B. Nuclease
C. Primase
D. Proofreading activity of DNA polymerase
E. Synthetic activity of DNA polymerase

Back 3

B. Nuclease

Front 4

4. Prokaryotic transcription differs from eukaryotic transcription because in prokaryotic transcription:
A. Exons are removed from the primary transcript
B. Messenger RNA is made in the cytoplasm
C. RNA polymerase II is used
D. The DNA helix does not have to be opened
E. Transcription regulators are required

Back 4

B. Messenger RNA is made in the cytoplasm

Front 5

5. During the attachment of an amino acid to its transfer RNA:
A. Amino acid is attached to the codon
B. Amino acid is attached to the ribosome
C. Ribosomal RNA participates
D. The amino acid is attached to the anticodon
E. The reaction is catalyzed by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

Back 5

E. The reaction is catalyzed by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

Front 6

6. Which one of the following mutations leads to the premature termination of protein synthesis?
A. Deletion
B. Frameshift
C. Insertion
D. Missense
E. Nonsense

Back 6

E. Nonsense

Front 7

7. In the DNA microarray technique:
A. A genomic library must be created
B. Many DNA sequences are spotted on the microarray surface
C. Proteins are hybridized to microarray DNA oligonucleotides
D. Protein probes hybridize to RNAs spotted on the microarray surface
E. The RNA pieces are cut using dicer enzyme

Back 7

B. Many DNA sequences are spotted on the microarray surface

Front 8

8. Rickettsia are examples of microbes that can:
A. Be easily identified by the acid-fast stain
B. Cause beta-hemolysis on blood agar
C. Rely on host cells for their continuous growth
D. Replicate and grow both inside and outside of host cells
E. Replicate and grow only outside of host cells

Back 8

C. Rely on host cells for their continuous growth

Front 9

9. Which of the following is an example of a disease transmitted by an insect vector?
A. Botulism
B. HIV infection
C. Legionnaires disease
D. Lyme disease
E. Viral influenza

Back 9

D. Lyme disease

Front 10

10. During a routine gall bladder removal, an experienced surgeon ties and severs the cystic artery, along
with the periarterial plexus of nerves surrounding it. What type of nerve fibers are most likely cut in this
procedure?
A.Postganglionic parasympathetic
B. Preganglionic sympathetic
C.. Somatic motor
D.. Somatic sensory
E. Visceral sensory

Back 10

E. Visceral sensory

Front 11

11. Which of the following is an example of referred pain?
A. Burn from touching a hot iron
B. Cold from holding an ice pack
C. Diffuse pain in the abdomen from stomach cramps
D. Pain in the arm during a heart attack
E. Sharp pain from stepping on a tack

Back 11

D. Pain in the arm during a heart attack

Front 12

12. The oocyte maturation inhibition peptide (OMI) arrests the primary oocytes during:
A. Anaphase of meiosis I (one)
B. Meiosis II (two)
C. Prophase of meiosis I (one)
D. Prophase of mitosis
E. Telophase of meiosis I (one)

Back 12

C. Prophase of meiosis I (one

Front 13

13. The ultimate fate of the notochord is to:
A. Become the annuli fibrosi
B. Become the lateral plate mesoderm
C. Become the nuclei pulposi
D. Become the vertebral bodies
E. Regress

Back 13

C. Become the nuclei pulposi
D. Become the vertebral bodies

Front 14

14. The most common lymph nodes to be affected in breast cancer because they drain 75% of the lymph from the breast are the:
A. Axillary
B. Cervical
C. Infraclavicular
D. Parasternal
E. Supraclavicular

Back 14

A. Axillary

Front 15

15. Which vessel has the most oxygenated blood?
A. Aorta
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Pulmonary trunk
E. Pulmonary vein

Back 15

A. Aorta E. Pulmonary vein

Front 16

A physical examination was used to screen for breast cancer in 2,000 women with biopsy-proven
adenocarcinoma of the breast and in 3,500 control women.
The results of the physical examination were positive in 1,400 cases and in 560 control women.
16. The sensitivity of the physical examination was:
A. 1400/2000
B. 1400/1960
C. 2940/3500
D. 2940/3540
E. 1400/2940

Back 16

A.

Front 17

17. The specificity of the physical examination was:
A. 1400/2000
B. 1400/1960
c. 2940/3500
d. 2940/3540
e. 1400/2940

Back 17

C.

Front 18

18. A person who is designated a carrier of a particular infectious disease:
A. Can still infect others, and has been known to do so
B. Does not harbor the organism, but only has evidence of prior infection
C. Has an allergy to penicillin
D. Should always be quarantined for up to 40 days
E. Should be vaccinated against the suspect pathogen

Back 18

A.

Front 19

19. Which of the following is necessary for herd immunity to occur?
A. Disease agent must be restricted to a single host species within which transmission occurs
B. Disease agent will be transmitted by contaminated water vapor
C. Disease agent will include animal vectors and contaminated water
D. People must live together in a close-knit community, e.g., dormitory
E. Transmission occurs via indirect transmission

Back 19

A.

Front 20

20. Which structure contributes to the formation of the bladder?
A. Allantois
B. Cloacal membrane
C. Oropharyngeal membrane
D. Septum transversum
E. Yolk sac

Back 20

A. Allantois
B. Cloacal membrane

Front 21

21. Which of the following best correlates with the innervation of the forerarm and hand:
A. Cervical root – axillary, radial, peroneal nerves
B. Cervical root – ulnar, radial, peroneal nerves
C. Brachial plexus – median, ulnar and peroneal nerves
D. Brachial plexus – median, ulnar and radial nerves
E. Brachial plexus – peroneal, supraspinatus, long thoracic nerves

Back 21

D. Brachial plexus – median, ulnar and radial nerves

Front 22

22. A 25-year-old man presents with a history of chronic abdominal pain, occasional headaches, and a left
claw-hand with prominently flexed fourth and fifth fingers.
The patient is unable to actively extend these
fingers. Which of the following is correct?
A. Cause of the claw hand is median nerve compression due to carpal tunnel syndrome
B. The physician notes in the record the presence of a tender abdomen – this is a symptom
C. The physician notes in the record the presence of the claw hand – this is a sign
D. The physician notes in the record the presence of the claw hand – this is a symptom
E. The physician notes in the record the term “headache” – this is a sign

Back 22

B. The physician notes in the record the presence of a tender abdomen – this is a symptom
C. The physician notes in the record the presence of the claw hand – this is a sign

Front 23

23. Which of the following statements is correct in medical terminology?
A.“Oligo” is a prefix and means : too many
B.“Onc” is a root and means: the study of cancer
C.“Pathy” is a prefix and means: study of disease
D.The most common connecting vowel is the letter “i”
E.The plural of foramen is foramina

Back 23

E.The plural of foramen is foramina

Front 24

24. A 50-year-old female presents with back pain. When you press on the right transverse process that is
parallel with the inferior angle of her scapula she jumps in pain. On motion testing you find that the
transverse process is rotated posteriorly to the right. Which of the following muscles is the most likely
cause of her pain?
A. A spasm of levatores costarum longus attaching to the right transverse process of T7
B.A spasm of rhomboid minor attaching to the right transverse process of T8
C. A spasm of rotatores thoracis longus attaching to the right transverse process of T8
D. A spasm of serratus posterior inferior attaching to the right transverse process of T6
E. A spasm of spinalis thoracis attaching to the right transverse process of T7

Back 24

C. A spasm of rotatores thoracis longus attaching to the right transverse process of T8

Front 25

25. A 60-year-old male presents with prostate cancer with boney metastasis to the spine. He tells you that
on his last scan they found increased activity at the spinous process of T6. Where would you find the
spinous process of T6 on his spine?
A. At the level in between T5 and T6 transverse processes
B. At the level in between T6 and T7 transverse processes
C. At the level of the T5 transverse process
D. At the level of the T6 transverse process
E. At the level of the T7 transverse process

Back 25

B. At the level in between T6 and T7 transverse processes