2013 Ctic Exam

Front 1

How long must we retain evals?

Back 1

FITREPS and CHIEFEVALS for 5 years
Enlisted evals for 2 years

Front 2

A Periodic report may be omitted if the member has received a graded Regular report within the past _ months.

Back 2

3

Front 3

Who are raters?

Back 3

The rater for personnel E1-E4 can be an E6 or civilian
equivalent.
For personnel E5-E6, the rater should be a Navy CPO whenever possible, but if none is available within the command, the rater may be a military or civilian supervisor who is an E7 equivalent or higher.

Front 4

Who are senior raters?

Back 4

Typically, the senior rater will be the
member's division officer or department head.

Front 5

___________ reports provide a record of significant
performance in an additional duty (ADDU), temporary additional duty (TEMADD), CAI status or designated billet assignment.

Back 5

Concurrent

Front 6

May senior raters make a Concurrent Report count as a Regular Report?

Back 6

Yes

Front 7

What is an adverse report?

Back 7

"Significant Problems" or not recommended for retention

Front 8

When was the first time Congress passed legislation to purchase and arm naval vessels?
1. 10 May 1774
2. 4 July 1776
3. 13 October 1775
4. 10 November 1775

Back 8

3. 13 October 1775

Front 9

Which, if any, of the following factors defines naval presence?
1. A major deployment
2. Having a naval force in a specific location
3. Deploying to a hostile area to confront adversaries
4. None of the above

Back 9

2. Having a naval force in a specific location

Front 10

Deployments place naval forces in position for which of the following purposes?
1. To provide protection and support to allied forces in time of war
2. To stop the advance of the enemy as soon as possible
3. To engage the enemy promptly at the start of hostilities
4. All of the above

Back 10

4. All of the above

Front 11

What is the maximum time U.S. naval forces can sustain operations in a crisis area?
1. 30 days
2. 6 months
3. 1 year
4. Indefinitely

Back 11

4. Indefinitely

Front 12

What requirement must U.S. naval forces reflect to be effective in a presence role?
1. Friendliness toward the host country and its allies
2. Ready combat capability to respond to any threat
3. Current U.S. policy
4. Current technology

Back 12

2. Ready combat capability to respond to any threat

Front 13

Which of the following responsibilities belongs to the Navy during wartime?
1. Functioning in a hostile environment
2. Power projection
3. Sea control
4. All of the above

Back 13

4. All of the above

Front 14

Sea control means having simultaneous control over the world's international waters.
1. True
2. False

Back 14

2. False; it is a selective function, exercised only when and where necessary.

Front 15

What basic military function provides U.S. forces with the ability to conduct sustained operations abroad?
1. Acquiring large amounts of the enemy’s territory
2. Large numbers of ground forces
3. Naval presence
4. Sea control

Back 15

4. Sea control

Front 16

Denying the enemy the ability to advance close enough to use weapons is called
1. intermediate hostile interdiction
2. power projection
3. naval presence
4. sea control

Back 16

2. Power projection

Front 17

An essential element of power projection is identified by which of the following requirements?
1. Amphibious ships
2. Counter insurgency warfare
3. Intermediate hostile interdiction
4. Forward deployed propositioning of ships

Back 17

1. Amphibious ships

Front 18

The unrestricted global mobility of naval forces is based on which of the following items?
1. Treaties
2. Tradition
3. International agreement
4. Difficulty of detection

Back 18

"the traditional and time-honored
concept of the free use of international seas."
2. Tradition or 3. International agreement?

Front 19

Which, if any, of the following statements describes why Africa is strategically important to western nations?
1. It is very suitable for weapons testing because large areas of land are uninhabited
2. It has port facilities suitable for naval bases
3. It has a wealth of natural resources
4. None of the above

Back 19

3. vast wealth in minerals it exports to developed
countries.

Front 20

Operation El Dorado involved which of the following countries?
1. United States and Mozambique
2. United States and Grenada
3. United States and Libya
4. United States and Iraq

Back 20

3. United States and Libya

Front 21

Which of the following factors contribute(s) to deterrence in the Pacific and East Asian regions?
1. Bilateral defense treaties
2. Weapons technology
3. PACOM forces
4. All of the above

Back 21

4. All of the above

Front 22

Which of the following countries is NOT working toward acquiring nuclear weapons capability?
1. Saudi Arabia
2. France
3. Iraq
4. Iran

Back 22

2. France

Front 23

What stance does the U.S. take on chemical and biological weapons?
1. The U.S. encourages their use by our allies because they are less expensive than nuclear weapons
2. Nuclear weapons are more efficient so we don’t stock chemical weapons
3. We will do all we can to prevent their use
4. We will retaliate in kind

Back 23

3. "it is abhorrent, reprehensible, and unacceptable that chemical weapons ever be used against the men and women of the armed forces of the United States or its allies and that the United States will do all it can to prevent such use.”

Front 24

Which of the following nerve agents is most likely to be produced by a third world country?
1. GD
2. GB
3. GA
4. VX

Back 24

3. GA Tabun

Front 25

Countries with known or suspected chemical weapons capabilities include which of the following Middle Eastern countries?
1. Israel , Egypt, Lebanon, Syria, Iraq, and Iran
2. Egypt, Iran, Syria, Libya, Israel , and Iraq
3. Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Israel, Iran, Iraq. and Libya
4. Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Israel , Libya, Lebanon

Back 25

2. Egypt, Iran, Syria, Libya, Israel, and Iraq

Front 26

The United States supported Iraq during the Iran-Iraq War.
1. True
2. False

Back 26

1. True; the United
States supported Iraqi President Saddam Hussein
in an attempt to topple the Iranian government.
In a strange turn of events, the United States
asked Iran for support of Operation Desert
Shield.

Front 27

The job of the U.S. Navy in the Persian Gulf, from 1987 to 1988, is best described by which of the following statements?
1. The primary mission was in support of the Iraqi navy
2. The mission of the U.S. Navy was to seek out and destroy Iranian naval units
3. The primary mission was to ensure freedom of passage to oil tankers
4. The primary mission was to act as decoys while elements of the British and French navies attacked terrorist camps

Back 27

3. The primary mission was to ensure freedom of passage to oil tankers

Front 28

Which of the following countries claims to be the victim of numerous Iraqi chemical attacks?
1. Iran
2. Libya
3. Syria
4. Israel

Back 28

1. Iran claimed to be victim to 253 chemical
attacks during its war with Iraq.

Front 29

The chemical agent distilled mustard, HD, belongs to which of the following families of agents?
1. Choking
2. B l i s t e r
3. Nerve
4. Blood

Back 29

2. Blister

Front 30

The chemical agent diphosgene, DP, belongs to which of the following families of agents?
1. Choking
2. B l i s t e r
3. Nerve
4. Blood

Back 30

1. Choking

Front 31

The chemical agent cyanogen chloride, CK, belongs to which of the following families of agents?
1. Choking
2. B l i s t e r
3. Nerve
4. Blood

Back 31

4. Blood

Front 32

The chemical agent VX belongs to which of the following families of agents?
1. Choking
2. B l i s t e r
3. Nerve
4. Blood

Back 32

3. Nerve

Front 33

Which of the following chemical agents has a dark yellow appearance?
1. Soman, GD
2. Nitrogen, HN
3. Mustard-Lewisite, HL
4. Cyanogen Chloride, CK

Back 33

2. Nitrogen, HN

Front 34

Any country capable of producing organophosphorus pesticides can produce which of the following chemical agents?
1. Tabun
2. Chlorine
3. Lewisite
4. Phosgene

Back 34

1. Tabun

Front 35

When assigned as the preliminary inquiry officer, you will usually investigate which of the following offenses?
1. Offenses under investigation by a fact finding body
2. offenses under investigation by NIS
3. Major offenses
4. Minor offenses

Back 35

4. Minor offenses (not under investigation by NIS)

Front 36

The legal officer uses what part of the Manual for Courts–Martial, 1984 in preparing a report chit?
1. Part I
2. Part III
3. Part IV
4. Part VI

Back 36

3. Part IV

Front 37

The accused is informed of his or her rights under which of the following articles?
1. Article 31(a) of the Manual for Courts–Martial, 1984
2 . Article 31(b) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice
3. Article 30(a) of the Manual for Courts-Martial, 1984
4. Article 30(b) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice

Back 37

2. Article 31(b) of the UCMJ

Front 38

What source of information provides the best facts about the accused?
1. Service record of the accused
2. An informal interview with the witnesses
3. The person who initiated the report chit
4. Supervisors and peers of the accused

Back 38

4. Statements given by supervisors, peers, and the accused provide the best source of information about the accused.

Front 39

Who has the greatest motive for lying or distorting the truth?
1. The witnesses
2. The accused, if guilty
3. The accused, if innocent
4. The person who initiated the report chit

Back 39

2. The accused, if guilty

Front 40

A copy of the Ship’s Organization and Regulations Manual is considered to be what type of evidence?
1. Documentary evidence
2. Regulatory evidence
3. Physical evidence
4. Real evidence

Back 40

1. Documentary evidence

Front 41

The preliminary investigation officer should conduct an interview with the accused at which of the following times?
1. As soon as the report chit is filled out
2. After examining the real and documentary evidence
3. After the accused has been advised of article 31(b) of the UCMJ and makes a waiver of rights
4. After advising the accused on the legal technicalities of the case

Back 41

3. ONLY IF HE OR SHE HAS KNOWINGLY AND INTELLIGENTLY WAIVED HIS OR HER STATUTORY RIGHTS

Front 42

The United States Coast Guard is assigned to the Navy at which of the following times?
1. Upon declaration of war
2. When directed by the president
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. When requested by the Chief of Naval Operations

Back 42

3. upon declaration of war or when directed by the President (Chapter 6)

Front 43

What is the primary regulatory document of the Navy?
1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
2. Uniform Code of Military Justice
3. Manual for Courts-Martial, 1984
4. U.S. Navy Regulations

Back 43

4. U.S. Navy Regulations

Front 44

Chapter 8 of U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, applies to which of the following people?
1. Commanding officers
2 . Prospective commanding officers
3. Petty officers detailed as officer in charge or command duty officer
4. All of the above

Back 44

1. Commanding Officers (Chapter 8)

Front 45

Which of the following chapters of U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, outlines the actions of U.S. naval forces when in the vicinity of other armed forces?
1. The Senior Officer Present
2. Precedence, Authority and Command
3. Commanders in Chief and Other Commanders
4. Statutory Authority for United States Navy Regulations

Back 45

1. The Senior Officer Present (Chapter 9)

Front 46

Which chapter in U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, provides information on detailing officers and enlisted persons?
1. The Senior Officer Present
2 . Precedence, Authority and Command
3. Commanders in Chief and Other Commanders
4. Statutory Authority for United States Navy Regulations

Back 46

2. Precedence, Authority and Command (Chapter 10)

Front 47

The articles specifically enumerated in article 137 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice should be explained to each enlisted person at which of the following times?
1. After completion of six months active duty
2 . At the time of each PCS move
3. Before each deployment
4. Three months before separation from the Navy

Back 47

1. After completion of six months active duty
(and upon the occasion of each reenlistment)

Front 48

Which of the following publications is NOT required to be made available to any person on active duty?
1. Navy Regulations
2. Uniform Code of Military Justice
3. Pay and Personnel Procedures Manual
4. Navy Military Personnel Manual

Back 48

3. Pay and Personnel Procedures Manual

Front 49

Which of the following statements concerning the exercise of authority is true?
1. A retired Navy captain may exercise authority over all subordinate personnel
2. A master chief petty officer in the Fleet Reserve may exercise authority over all subordinates
3. A commander on the sick list may exercise authority over all subordinates
4. A second class petty officer on active duty, capable of discharging all duties may exercise authority over all subordinate personnel

Back 49

4. While on active duty, not on leave, on the sick list, taken into custody, under arrest, suspended from duty, in confinement or otherwise incapable of discharging their duties.

Front 50

When an enlisted person receives an order that conflicts with a previously received order, which of the following actions should that person take?
1. Obey the first Order
2. Obey the last order
3. Obey neither order
4. Obey both orders

Back 50

2. Obey the last order

Front 51

Which of the following officers would have authority over all persons embarked in a boat?
1. A chaplain who is a captain
2 . A Supply Corps commander
3. A naval aviator who is a lieutenant commander
4. A Chief Warrant Boatswain

Back 51

3. A naval aviator who is a LCDR

"the senior line officer who is eligible for command at sea"

Front 52

The department head assigns a job to a chief. The chief is busy and assigns the job to the leading petty officer (LPO). The LPO forgets about the job and goes on liberty.
Who was responsible for completing the job?
1. The LPO only
2. The chief only
3. The LPO, chief, and division officer
4. The LPO, chief, and department head

Back 52

4. The LPO, chief, and department head.

The delegation of authority and issuance of orders and instructions by a person in the naval service shall not relieve such person from any responsibility imposed upon him or her.

Front 53

A sentry would NOT have authority over which, if any, of the following persons on his or her post?
1. A line officer
2 . A staff officer
3. The command master chief
4. None of the above

Back 53

4. None of the above

A sentry, within the limits stated in his or her orders, has authority over all persons on his or her post.

Front 54

When, if ever, may a junior person give an order to an officer who is senior to him or her?
1. When the junior is the petty officer of the watch
2 . When the junior is serving on the staff of a rear admiral
3. When the junior is an executive officer executing an order of the commanding officer
4. Never

Back 54

3. When the junior is an executive officer executing an order of the commanding officer

(or when in command of the ship or other command to which the senior is attached, or in command or direction of the military expedition or duty on which such senior is serving)

Front 55

When may an officer accept money from an enlisted person?
1. When the officer has sold an item of personal property to the enlisted person
2 . Only when on liberty
3. As a birthday gift
4. Only as a loan

Back 55

1. When the officer has sold an item of personal property to the enlisted person

(or in the performance of the officer's duties, or to accept deposits for the purpose of safeguarding these funds under emergency or operational situations)

Front 56

A chief petty officer loans money to another chief petty officer. What, if any, is the maximum interest rate that can be charged?
1. 10 percent
2. 14 percent
3. 18 percent
4. None

Back 56

3. 18 percent

Front 57

Which of the following persons may inspect your record held by the Chief of Naval Personnel?
1. You
2. Your designated agent.
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Your division officer

Back 57

3. Both 1 and 2 above (you or your authorized agent designated in writing)

Front 58

Which of the following Navy personnel are required to report all offenses to proper authority?
1. Officers
2 . Petty Officers
3. Nonrated personnel
4. All of the above

Back 58

4. All of the above

Front 59

If you believe one of your personnel has a communicable disease, who should you report it to?
1. The command's medical representative
2 . The commanding officer
3. The executive officer
4. The division officer

Back 59

1. The command's medical representative

Front 60

Which, if any, of the following statements concerning exchange of duty is correct?
1. You and another person only need to show up for each other’s watch
2. You only need to notify the officer of the deck
3. You and the other person should prepare a special request chit requesting an exchange of duty and route it through proper authority
4. None of the above

Back 60

3. You and the other person should prepare a special request chit requesting an exchange of duty and route it through proper authority

Front 61

Which of the following statements concerning Navy examinations is correct?
1. Members may use old examinations as study guides for future examinations
2. Members taking examinations may discuss questions among themselves prior to answering them
3. Members may develop study guides from prior examinations to use in preparing for future examinations
4. None of the above

Back 61

4. None of the above

Front 62

Normally, a person in the Navy may communicate with a member of Congress with no restrictions.
However, should the service member, in an official capacity, desire congressional action of any type, he or she must
1. receive prior approval from the Chief of Naval Operations
2. inform the Secretary of the Navy of the intention to communicate and receive the former’s consent to proceed
3. inform the Secretary of the Navy of the intent to communicate and the former must get the consent of the Secretary of Defense to proceed
4. inform the Secretary of the Navy of the intention to communicate and then proceed with the application

Back 62

2. inform the Secretary of the Navy of the intention to communicate and receive the former's consent to proceed

Front 63

A person may be denied the right to communicate with a member of Congress under which, if any, of the following conditions?
1. When the communication is critical of Navy policy
2. When the communication alleges misconduct of a superior
3. When the communication would violate security regulations
4. None of the above

Back 63

3. When the communication would violate security regulations

Front 64

When a request is not approved or recommended, you should state the reason on the request.
1. True
2. False

Back 64

1. True

Front 65

Meals served in the general mess are sampled regularly by an officer detailed by the commanding officer. What course of action should the officer take if discrepancies are discovered?
1. Notify the food service officer
2 . Notify the supply officer
3. Notify the commanding officer
4. Advise personnel not to eat in the general mess

Back 65

3. Notify the commanding officer

Front 66

In which of the following publications would you find the definition for unity of command?
1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
2 . U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Uniform Code of Military Justice

Back 66

1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy

Front 67

Which of the following statements concerning extra military instruction (EMI) is true?
1. Only the commanding officer has the authority to assign EMI
2. EMI will normally be assigned for more than 2 hours per day
3. EMI may not be assigned at a reasonable hour outside of normal working hours
4. EMI will be conducted over a period that is longer than necessary to correct the performance discrepancy

Back 67

1. Only the commanding officer has the authority to assign EMI

"Normally, you may assign EMI during working hours if the commanding officer delegates the authority."

Front 68

Which, if any, of the following privileges can you, as a chief petty officer , withhold from your subordinates?
1. Special liberty
2 . Exchange of duty
3. Special services events
4. None of the above

Back 68

4. None of the above

"Your action should normally be limited to a recommendation to the chain of command to temporarily withhold a privilege."

Front 69

You are required to have your ship ready to get underway in the morning. It is nearing liberty call
and most of the work has not been accomplished. Which of the following administrative actions
should you apply?
1. Withholding of privileges
2. Extra military instruction
3. Extension of working hours
4. Control through recognition of performance

Back 69

3. Extension of working hours

"Working hours may be extended for official functions, accomplishment of essential work, or the achievement of the currently required level of operational readiness."

Front 70

You have a basic responsibility to recognize initiative and exemplary performance of your subordinates.
1. True
2 . False

Back 70

1. True

Front 71

Which, if any, of the following chapters in the SORN contain organizational requirements for aviation units?
1. Standard unit organization
2. The unit organization
3. Watch organization
4. None of the above

Back 71

1. Standard unit organization

Front 72

You are a work center supervisor and
would like to find out what your
LCPO responsibilities consist of.
Which, if any, of the following chapters in the SORN would provide guidance?
1. Standard unit organization
2. The unit organization
3. Watch organization
4. None of the above

Back 72

2. The unit organization

Front 73

Which of the following chapters in the SORN should the departmental duty officer review?
1. Standard unit organization
2 . The unit organization
3. Watch organization
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Back 73

4. Both 2 and 3 above (unit organization and watch organization)

Front 74

A person departing on leave must possess which of the following documents?
1. Properly validated leave papers and ID card
2. Armed forces liberty pass
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Geneva Convention card

Back 74

1. Properly validated leave papers and ID card

Front 75

Without proper authority, a person shall not remove which of the following items from the regular place of stowage or location?
1. First–aid equipment
2. Stores and foodstuffs
3. Hull and damage control fittings
4. Each of the above

Back 75

4. Each of the above

Front 76

Which of following statements is NOT true concerning berthing?
1. You may be placed on report for failing to get up at reveille
2. You may sleep or lie on your bunk in working clothes
3. You may not sleep in your work spaces unless authorized
4. You may turn on white lights in berthing any time you want between reveille and taps

Back 76

2. You may sleep or lie on your bunk in working clothes

Front 77

You pass the ship’s library after taps and notice some sailors playing monopoly. Which of the following actions should you take?
1. Ask the sailors to follow you to the chief’s quarters and have them wait while you fill out a report chit for violating article 510.01 of the SORN
2 . Stop and watch the sailors play the game
3. Remind the sailors it is against regulations to engage in games of any type after taps and ensure they quit
4. Continue on to the chiefs quarters without stopping

Back 77

3. Remind the sailors it is against regulations to engage in games of any type after taps and ensure they quit

Front 78

While in a liberty status aboard ship, you may wear civilian clothes while dining in the crew’s mess.
1. True
2. False

Back 78

2. False

You are permitted to wear civilian clothing when leaving or returning to a naval unit, awaiting transportation to leave the unit, while on authorized leave of absence, liberty or in any off-duty status ON SHORE.

Front 79

Aboard ship mess gear is often found in the work center. By regulation, which of the following persons is/are charged with ensuring the mess gear is immediately returned to the mess decks?
1. The division officer
2. The person who took the mess gear
3. The senior petty officer in charge of the space
4. All of the above

Back 79

3. The senior petty officer in charge of the space

Front 80

Which of the following statements concerning uniforms and clothing is true?
1. You may wear frayed or dirty uniforms
2. You may wear an article that is not prescribed as part of the uniform of the day
3. You may wear the uniform in a manner that would bring discredit to the Navy
4. No names or marks may be placed on foul weather clothing except the number prescribed for official designation

Back 80

4. No names or marks may be placed on foul weather clothing except the number prescribed for official designation

Front 81

You may bring your personal camera aboard ship without first obtaining permission.
1. True
2. False

Back 81

2. False

Front 82

Which of the following statements is/are applicable to the plan of the day?
1. It will posted on division bulletin boards
2. In port, it will be read at quarters
3. It will be published daily by the XO
4. All of the above

Back 82

4. All of the above

Front 83

The use of profane, obscene, or vulgar words or gestures aboard naval units is an accepted practice and doesn’t violate any regulations.
1. True
2. False

Back 83

2. False

Front 84

Chapter 7 of the SORN covers which of the following topics?
1. Safety
2. Training
3. Unit Bills
4. Unit directives system

Back 84

1. Safety

Front 85

What chapter in the SORN covers guidelines for establishing operational bills?
1. Unit Bills
2. Watch Organization
3. The Unit Organization
4. Standard Unit Organization

Back 85

1. Unit Bills

Front 86

What is the equal right of jurisdiction called?
1. Jurisprudence jurisdiction
2. Equilateral jurisdiction
3. Concurrent jurisdiction
4. Disparate jurisdiction

Back 86

3. Concurrent jurisdiction

Front 87

When a military member is tried in a U.S. court, the military will pay the attorney fees and court cost.
1. True
2. False

Back 87

2. False; a military tried in a foreign court has that advantage over a military member facing trial in the United States

Front 88

American troops are stationed in Europe for which of the following reasons?
1. To benefit our allies
2. To recognize the need for collective strength
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Europe pays the U.S. for stationing the troops in NATO countries

Back 88

2. To recognize the need for collective strength

Front 89

Status of Forces Agreements only apply to active duty military personnel.
1. True
2. False

Back 89

2. False; it defines the rights and duties of U. S. service personnel, civilian components, and their dependents while they are stationed in that foreign country.

Front 90

Status of Forces Agreements are a package of which of the following agreements?
1. Treaties
2 . Protocol agreements
3. Executive agreements
4. All of the above

Back 90

4. All of the above

Front 91

What is the primary purpose of the Status of Forces Agreements?
1. To define the status of one’s military forces stationed in another country
2 . To allow the host country jurisdiction over foreign
personnel
3. To provide for the common defense against communist aggressors
4. To give NATO forces the right to operate anywhere in Europe

Back 91

1. To define the status of one's military forces stationed in another country

Front 92

You are stationed aboard a ship in a foreign port. When are you exempt from prosecution by local authorities?
1. When you come back aboard after going on liberty
2 . When ashore on official business
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Naval personnel enjoy diplomatic immunity because of SOFA and are always exempt from prosecution

Back 92

3. Both 1 and 2

Front 93

Experience has shown that sentences imposed by foreign courts on U.S. service members are unusually harsh.
1. True
2 . False

Back 93

2. False; lenient with no cruel or unusual punishment

Front 94

Which of the following privileges are allowed under SOFA, by special consent of the host country?
1. Use of a U.S. driver's license
2. Waiver of taxes or import duty on household goods
3. Entering and leaving the country on military orders
4. All of the above

Back 94

4. All of the above

Front 95

Which of the following topics are generally covered by SOFAs?
1. Freedom of troop movement
2 . Exchange privileges
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Marriage licenses

Back 95

3. Both 1 and 2

Front 96

When did countries first recognize the need to develop Status of Forces Agreements?
1. Before World War I
2. During peacetime, 1919 to 1939
3. During World War II
4. After countries had recovered from World War II

Back 96

4. After countries had recovered from World War II

Front 97

An element that enables a seadependent nation to project its political, economic, and military strengths seaward is known as

Back 97

sea power

Front 98

The true strength of sea power can only be measured in terms of a nation’s ability to use the sea to further its

Back 98

national objectives

Front 99

It is more feasible to send naval forces, in comparison to other military forces, into crisis areas for which of the following reasons?

Back 99

The cost is low; Naval forces can stay on station indefinitely; Naval forces leave behind no physical reminders of their presence

Front 100

To continue to exist as we know it today, the United States must have a policy that recognizes its

Back 100

worldwide commitments

Front 101

What are the three fundamental pillars on which United States military strategy rests?

Back 101

Deterrence, forward defense, and alliance solidarity

Front 102

What responses could the United States take in the event of aggression by a potential enemy?

Back 102

meet force with force at the point of attack; increase the intensity of the conflict; alter the geographic width of the conflict; or control the duration of fighting.

Front 103

The Navy has the ability to outlast any aggressor with

Back 103

secure sea-lanes

Front 104

True or False. In time of emergency the Navy must be able to venture into harm’s way.

Back 104

True

Front 105

What are the components of the TRIAD of strategic nuclear forces?

Back 105

BALLISTIC MISSILES, INTERCONTINENTAL BALLISTIC MISSILES (ICBMs) and LONG-RANGE BOMBERS.

Front 106

What is the most flexible element of the TRIAD

Back 106

Intercontinental ballistic missiles

Front 107

What is the sole mission and fundamental reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine?

Back 107

To deter war

Front 108

The TRIAD has been developed and maintained for which of the following purposes?

Back 108

to deter nuclear attack

Front 109

Ships of the Second Fleet patrol some of the world’s most important trade routes. In what area of the world does the Second Fleet normally patrol?

Back 109

Western Atlantic

Front 110

Which of the following fleets would you find in the Western Pacific and Indian Ocean regions?

Back 110

Seventh

Front 111

Which of the following terms describes an attack that is intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destroy an objective?

Back 111

Strike

Front 112

Which of the following characteristics of a strike force is one of its greatest assets?

Back 112

Mobility

Front 113

What are the types of task forces organized primarily for strike force operations?

Back 113

carrier, surface, and submarine strike forces

Front 114

The primary mission of our submarine force is to destroy which of the following types of enemy ships?

Back 114

submarines

Front 115

The first fleet ballistic missile submarine was launched in what year?

Back 115

1959

Front 116

When the term “TRIDENT” is used, it is understood to include which of the following elements?

Back 116

submarines, missiles, and base.

Front 117

Trident I missiles have a multiple warhead capability and a maximum range of how many nautical miles?

Back 117

4,000

Front 118

The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear weapons.

Back 118

strike

Front 119

The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships.

Back 119

antisurface ship

Front 120

Naval operations generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature.

Back 120

special

Front 121

This type of warfare prevents the effective use of cargo-carrying vessels by the enemy.

Back 121

antisurface ship

Front 122

Correctly interpreted, this type of warfare permits military decisions to be based on accurate knowledge of the enemy’s forces and capabilities.

Back 122

intelligence

Front 123

Restriction is the least sever form of deprivation.
1. True
2. False

Back 123

1. True

Front 124

Which, if any, of the following classified material does not require controlled routing?
1. Confidential
2. Top secret
3. Secret
4. none of the above

Back 124

1. Confidential

Front 125

Which if any, of the following supervisors supports the Navy's Equal Opportunity program?
1. The one who relates positive and directly with all people equally
2. The one who only listens to one point of view
3. The one who stereotype people
4. The one who feels it necessary to intimidate some people to achieve goals

Back 125

1. The one who relates positive and directly with all people equally

Front 126

Under article 15 of the UCMJ, the commanding officer has how many punishments identified that he or she can impose at mast?
1. 3
2. 6
3. 12
4. 9

Back 126

4. 9

Front 127

Abuse of which of the following types of drugs may result in reoccurring effects months after the drug has been taken?
1. Narcotics
2. Hallucinogens
3. Depressants
4. Stimulants

Back 127

2. Hallucinogens

Front 128

For economy in writing, you should use as many abbreviations as possible
1. True
2. False

Back 128

2. False

Front 129

Which of the following indicators is one of the dangers to the hallucinogen abuser?
1. The unpredictability of the effects of the drug
2. A change in sleeping habits
3. The physical dependence created by the drug
4. A change in the mental condition

Back 129

1. The unpredictability of the effects of the drug

Front 130

Why has the Navy taken a firm stand against drug abuse?
1. Drug Abuse readiness
2. Drug abuse man-hours
3. Drug abuse moral and undermines combined is costly in lost causes the loss of esprit de corps
4. Each of the above

Back 130

4. Each of the above

Front 131

The effect of marijuana on the emotions and senses of the user depend on which of the following factors?
1. The amount and strength of the substance
2. The social setting and expected effects
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. The DNA structure of the user

Back 131

3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 132

What is the most valuable detection and deterrence tool used by the Navy to identify drug abusers?
1. Drug detection dogs
2. Undercover military police
3. Annual physicals
4. Urinalysis testing

Back 132

4. Urinalysis testing

Front 133

To make your writing more like speaking, you should use which of the following writing techniques?
1. Use personal pronouns
2. Use everyday words
3. Use short sentences
4. All of the above

Back 133

2. Use everyday words

Front 134

Which of the following paraphernalia found in a locker is an indication that the person is a narcotics abuser?
1. Bent spoons
2. Eyedroppers
3. Cotton balls
4 All of the above

Back 134

4. All of the above

Front 135

Which of the following words hurt naval writing by stretching sentences, delaying meaning, and hiding responsibility?
1. It is
2. You are
3. I am
4. Request you

Back 135

1. It is

Front 136

To help your subordinates grow both personally and professionally, you must use which of the following supervisory practices?
1. Provide timely feedback on performance
2. Provide on-the-job training
3. Identify their strengths and weaknesses
4. Each of the above

Back 136

4. Each of the above

Front 137

A person who abuses heroin develops a tolerance for the drug. How does this tolerance affect the person's reaction to the drug?
1. The drug no longer has an effect on the person's bloodstream
2. Larger doses are required for the same effect
3. Smaller doses are required for the same effect
4. The drug no longer has an effect on the person's central nervous system

Back 137

2. Larger doses are required for the same effect

Front 138

Which of the following subjects is NOT covered during the Navy Rights and Responsibilities workshop?
1. Combatant skills
2. Navy Regulations
3. Grievance and redress
4. Enlistment contract

Back 138

1. Combatant skills

Front 139

Nonjudicial punishment is better known in the Navy by which of the following titles?
1. Executive officers investigation
2. Court-martial
3. Mast
4. Captains mast

Back 139

4. Captains mast

Front 140

A drug abuser deeply under the influence of narcotics displays which of the following characteristics?
1. Anxiety
2. Lethargy
3. Lucidity
4. Hostility

Back 140

2. Lethargy

Front 141

Our Navy uses a standard filing system for which of the following reasons?
1. Frequent rotation of personnel
2. Saves the Navy space
3. Saves the Navy money
4. All of the above

Back 141

1. Frequent rotation of personnel

Front 142

Abuse of which of the following types of drugs results in the appearance of alcohol intoxication, but without the odor of alcohol on the breath?
1. Narcotics
2. Depressants
3. Hallucinogens
4. Stimulants

Back 142

2. Depressants

Front 143

Arrest in quarters may only be imposed on which of the following naval personnel?
1. E-1 through E-9
2. W-2 through W-4
3. 0-1 through 0-10
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Back 143

4. Both 2 and 3 above

Front 144

CMEO is an equal opportunity management system controlled primarily at which of the following levels?
1. Secretary of Defense
2. Chief of Naval Operations
3. Secretary of the Navy
4. Command

Back 144

4. Command

Front 145

When writing a naval letter, you should ensure it is well organized and orderly. Which of the following writing methods is NOT in the correct order?
1. Giving summaries before details
2. Giving conclusions before discussions
3. Stating explanations before answers
4. Stating requests before justifications

Back 145

3. Stating explanations before answers

Front 146

Normally, which of the following signs is the first emotional reaction following a dose of heroin?
1. A state of inactivity
2. A state of extreme stress
3. A feeling of weightlessness
4. A feeling of relief

Back 146

4. A feeling of relief

Front 147

Which of the following writing practices is the best approach to a subject when writing a directive?
1. Write in terms of "how to" instructions
2. Write in the "third person" style
3. Write directly to a user
4. Write in terms of "how to" checklists

Back 147

3. Write directly to a user

Front 148

As a subordinate writing to a senior, which of the following approaches should you avoid when setting the tone of the letter?
1. Directing
2. Suggesting
3. Requesting
4. Recommending

Back 148

1. Directing

Front 149

When filing material you should include all of the following except
1. a copy of the outgoing correspondence
2. all early drafts and extra copies
3. the incoming document
4. any essential supporting documents

Back 149

2. all early drafts and extra copies

Front 150

Under article 15 of the UCMJ, you have how many days to appeal the punishment awarded to you if you feel that it was unjust or disproportionate?
1. 20
2. 5
3. 10
4. 15

Back 150

2. 5

Front 151

Depressant overdoses, when taken with alcohol, may result in which of the following conditions?
1. Keen sense of humor
2. Mellow disposition
3. Articulate speech
4. Death

Back 151

4. Death

Front 152

Which of the following drugs can cause the heart or arteries to burst and cause a massive coronary?
1. Phencyclidine
2. Amphetamines
3. Crack
4. Codeine

Back 152

3. Crack

Front 153

Under the UCMJ, punishment must be imposed within 2 years of the offense.
1. True
2. False

Back 153

1. True

Front 154

Your rights are found under what UCMJ article?
1. 38
2. 37
3. 31
4. 15

Back 154

3. 31

Front 155

Which of the following personnel are subject to participation in the urinalysis testing program?
1. Enlisted personnel only, regardless of rank or age
2. All enlisted and officer personnel, regardless of the rank or age
3. Enlisted personnel in paygrades E-4 and below only
4. Officer personnel under the age of 25 only

Back 155

2. All enlisted and officer personnel, regardless of the rank or age

Front 156

Which of the following persons must have prior knowledge of a drug detection dog inspection or search?
1. The dog handler
2. The commanding officer
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. All personnel involved in the search

Back 156

3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 157

Paragraphs in a naval letter should be short and contain roughly what maximum number of sentences?
1. 6 to 7
2. 4 to 5
3. 8 to 10
4. 10 to 12

Back 157

2. 4 to 5

Front 158

For an idea to gain emphasis within a sentence, where should it appear?
1. At the start or the end of the sentence
2. At the end of the sentence only
3. In the middle of the sentence
4. At the start of the sentence only

Back 158

4 At the start or the end of the sentence

Front 159

A drug abuser who suffers long periods of time without sleeping or eating is probably abusing which of the following types of drugs?
1. Alcohol
2. Stimulants
3. Depressants
4. Narcotics

Back 159

2. Stimulants

Front 160

Information concerning equal opportunity contained in command records may NOT be obtained through which of the following methods?
1. Surveys
2. Training
3. Observations
4. Interviews

Back 160

2. Training

Front 161

The preliminary (PIO) completes what section of the NAVPERS 1626/7?
1. C
2. G
3. I
4. E

Back 161

4. E

Front 162

What two methods of data collecting by the CAT require other data sources to be used to draw conclusions and produce findings that can be validly interpreted?
1. Surveys and interviews
2. Interviews and observations
3. Observations and surveys
4. Command records and Interviews

Back 162

3. Observations and surveys

Front 163

Which of the following terms describes the Navy's recognition that drug and alcohol abuse is incompatible with the Navy's effort to instill pride and professionalism?
1. Zero defects
2. Self-referrals preferable
3. Screening with meaning
4. Zero tolerance

Back 163

4. Zero tolerance

Front 164

To manage and supervise people effectively, you must have which of the following leadership skills?
1. The ability to listen to and understand what people have to say
2. The ability to place people in correct racial, ethnic, and religious categories
3. The ability to substitute generalized ideas about people when you aren't sure of their motives
4. The ability to ignore conflicts among various groups

Back 164

1. The ability to listen to and understand what people have to say

Front 165

Which of the following conditions is an indicator of a marijuana abuser presently under the influence of the substance?
1. Loud and rapid talking
2. Great bursts of laughter
3. In a stupor or seems sleepy
4. All of the above

Back 165

4. All of the above

Front 166

Without using court-martial intervention. what article of the UCMJ empowers a commanding officer to impose punishment for minor offenses on both officer and enlisted personnel?
1. 15
2. 10
3. 20
4. 5

Back 166

1. 15

Front 167

Drinking a large amount of cough medication is a common method of abusing which of the following drugs?
1. Morphine
2. Opium
3. Codeine
4. Heroin

Back 167

3. Codeine

Front 168

Which of the following punishments is considered the most severe form of NJP?
1. Reduction in grade
2. Forfeiture of pay
3. Restriction
4. Correctional custody

Back 168

1. Reduction in grade

Front 169

The order that references appear in reference block of a naval letter is based on which of the following factors?
1. The OPNAV/SECNAV number assigned
2. The order in which they appear in the text
3. The length of the title of the reference
4. The numerical listing

Back 169

2. The order in which they appear in the text

Front 170

To save words, clarify ideas, and provide balance when you wish to express two or more equally important ideas in a sentence, you should use which of the following types of sentence construction?
1. Rambling sentences
2. Topic sentences
3. Mini sentences
4. Parallel sentences

Back 170

4. Parallel sentences

Front 171

The Report and Disposition of Offense(s), NAVPERS 1626/7, contains all of the following information except
1. all of the required pre-mast advice that must be given to the accused
2. preliminary inquiry report
3. action of the XO at screening mast
4. record of any pre-mast restraint

Back 171

1. all of the required pre-mast advice that must be given to the accused

Front 172

Standard subject identification codes (SSICs) provide which of the following standard systems throughout the Navy?
1. Colors
2. Numbers
3. Symbols
4. Alphabets

Back 172

2. Numbers

Front 173

Which of the following drugs is abused on the pretense of weight control?
1. Amphetamines
2. Phencyclidine
3. Methadone
4. Marijuana

Back 173

1. Amphetamines

Front 174

Under the Navy's policy for drug abusers, which of the following actions is taken if a PO2 commits a drug abuse offense?
1. The person is processed for immediate separation
2. The person is afforded in-service residential treatment
3. The person is screened for drug dependency
4. The person is given a waiver if he or she has exhibited exceptional service

Back 174

3. The person is screened for drug dependency

Front 175

Who must ensure that within a amount of time of the report of an offense that the accused is fully advised of his or her rights concerning a possible NJP?
1. Officer contemplating imposing NJP
2. Department head and division officer of the accused
3. Legal officer
4. Chief Master-at-Arms

Back 175

1. Officer contemplating imposing NJP

Front 176

A person who has taken an overdose of cocaine may experience which of the following reactions?
1. Death
2. Anxiety
3. Euphoria
4. Excitation

Back 176

1. Death

Front 177

The Navy Rights and Responsibilities workshop is conducted by which of the following groups?
1. Command Rights and Responsibilities Team
2. Command Assessment Team (CAT)
3. Command Training Team (CTT)
4. Striker Board

Back 177

3. Command Training Team (CTT)

Front 178

If a person commits an act of arbitrary discrimination, the commanding officer may take which of the following disciplinary actions?
1. Assign lower evaluation marks
2. Award non judicial punishment
3. Submit a recommendation for separation
4. Each of the above

Back 178

4. Each of the above

Front 179

Each urinalysis sample is tested how many minimum number of times by one of the Navy's drug screening laboratories?
1. 1
2. 5
3. 3
4. 2

Back 179

3. 3

Front 180

Confinement on bread and water has a maximum duration of how many days?
1. 3
2. 1
3. 2
4. 4

Back 180

1. 3

Front 181

Any enlisted person determined to be alcohol dependent with ___ days of entry on active duty may be processed for administrative separation as a “Defective and Fraudulent Enlistment” if the evidence shows that the member concealed a disqualifying pre-service alcohol incident history.

Back 181

180 days

Front 182

Each command shall submit to the NAVDRUGLABs samples from ______ percent of its assigned personnel monthly.

Back 182

10 to 20 percent

Front 183

Except for unit sweeps, submissions in excess of __ percent of assigned personnel in any given month require Echelon THREE prior approval.

Back 183

40 percent

Front 184

ALCOHOL-AWARE is basic alcohol awareness training for use at Navy commands. It targets junior enlisted (E1-E4) and junior officers (01-03). All Navy personnel shall complete the AWARE course within _____ of completion of recruit training or other accession point entry.

Back 184

2 years

Front 185

PREVENT 2000 is a 24-hour prevention education and health promotions course targeting the _____ year age group.

Back 185

18-25

Front 186

Which instruction governs the Navy Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Control?

Back 186

OPNAV 5350.4

Front 187

Which instruction is the Career Counselor Handbook?

Back 187

NAVPERS 15878K

Front 188

Which instruction governs CDBs?

Back 188

OPNAVINST 1040.11C

Front 189

Who chairs CDBs?

Back 189

Command Level: CMC/COB/SEL
Dept Level: Dept LCPO

Front 190

Command Level CDB will be conducted for all Sailors within __ days of reporting

Back 190

30

Front 191

Reasons for Command CDBs:

Back 191

Recommended by Dept;
24 mos prior to HYT;
striking for a rate;
Professional Apprenticeship Program Tracks (PACT);
Class "A" school requests;
National call to Service Sailors;
Rating conversion;
Not approved for in-rate reenlistment or conversion by 3rd rollover (PTS);
Commissioning program applications;
Special Programs as required;
Transfer/Separation as required;
Reserve Conversion/NAVET/OSFET with 1 year on board who have not completed lateral conversion;
Non select for E8/9
Sailors may attend for other reasons and upon member's request

Front 192

Reasons for Dept level CDBs

Back 192

6 month, 12 month, 24 month, 36 month, 48 month, 60 month, transfer/SEP, Special Programs, PTS, CMS/ID, PNA advancement 3x, standard score of 40 or below, selection board not eligible, exam failure, non-select for E7/8

Front 193

What instruction governs Foreign Language Proficiency Bonus Pay Program?

Back 193

OPNAVINST 7220.7

Front 194

Which is true of FLPB pay restrictions?
1. a. Not to exceed $12,000 in a single year of certification as prescribed in this chapter.
2. For more than one language, provided the total payment does not exceed $500 per month for a single language, or $1,000 per month for any combination of languages.
3. In monthly installments for both the active and reserve components (RC).
4. All of the above?

Back 194

4. All of the above

Front 195

Which is NOT a category of the Strategic Language List (SLL)?
1. Urgent
2. Immediate
3. Emerging
4. Enduring

Back 195

1. Urgent

Front 196

Can U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen receive FLPB?

Back 196

No

Front 197

Career Linguist

Back 197

Career linguists are FAOs and members of the CTI rating. FAOs must carry the 17xx designation.

Front 198

Emerging Language List

Enduring Language List

Immediate Language List

Back 198

Languages for which DoDanticipates an expanding requirement.
Languages for which DoD has forecasted strategic needs for the next 10 to 15 years.
Languages for which DoD requires increased near-term capacity.

Front 199

Policy, guidelines, and implementation of the U.S. space programs and their related activities are formalized in which of the following documents?
1. National Space Policy
2. National Defense Policy
3. National Security Policy
4. National Joint Service Policy

Back 199

1. National Space Policy

Front 200

The responsibility for developing, operating, and maintaining space and space support systems critical to national defense lies with what organization?
1. Department of Defense
2. Department of the Navy
3. National Security Agency
4. Central Intelligence Agency

Back 200

1. Department of Defense

Front 201

Within the civilian sector, what agency is responsible for advancing space science, exploration, and space applications?
1. National Security Agency (NSA)
2. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
3. National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
4. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)

Back 201

3. NASA

Front 202

What is the DOD's primary goal in space?
1. To keep a distant watch on armament movements
2. To deliver as many communication satellites as possible
3. To provide transport for various payloads requested by the Armed Services
4. To provide operational capabilities to ensure that the U.S. can meet national security objectives

Back 202

4. To provide operational capabilities to ensure that the U.S. can meet national security objectives

Front 203

The Navy and the Marine Corps have sponsored all of the following space programs EXCEPT which one?
1. Fleet Satellite Communications System
2. Navy Navigation Satellite System
3. Naval Space Surveillance Center
4. Space Surveillance Network

Back 203

4. Space Surveillance Network

Front 204

The U.S. has two primary launch sites;

Back 204

located at Cape Canaveral Air Force Station (CCAFS), FL, and Vandenberg AFB, CA.

Front 205

The USSPACECOM is headquartered at what location?
1. Peterson Air Force Base, CO
2. Houston Control Center, TX
3. Lowry Air Force Base, CO
4. Kennedy Space Center, FL

Back 205

1. Peterson Air Force Base, CO

Front 206

The USSPACECOM is supported by what three component commands?
1. NAVSPACECOM, NASA, and AFSPC
2. AFSPACECOM, NAVSPACECOM, and NASA
3. AFSPACECOM, NAVSPACECOM, and SPADOC
4. NAVSPACECOM, AFSPC, and SMDC

Back 206

4. NAVSPACECOM, AFSPC, and SMDC

Front 207

The JCS has assigned to the USSPACECOM all of the following missions EXCEPT which one?
1. Space control
2. Space support
3. Space force enhancement
4. Environmental monitoring

Back 207

4. Environmental monitoring; should be "force application"

Front 208

The Cheyenne Mountain Air Force Base is a hollowed-out mountain that houses several space and defense centers. It is located near what city?
1. Colorado Springs, CO
2. White Sands, NM
3. Salt Lake City, UT
4. Cheyenne, WY

Back 208

4. Cheyenne, WY

Front 209

The Department of the Navy is specifically assigned which of the following responsibilities that may have unique applications for space systems?
1. Sea-based launch and space support missions
2. Antisubmarine and mine warfare
3. Maritime reconnaissance
4. Sea-based launch and space support missions, antisubmarine and mine warfare, and maritime reconnaissance

Back 209

4. Sea-based launch and space support missions, antisubmarine and mine warfare, and maritime reconnaissance

Front 210

Of all satellite signals intelligence output provided to the military, the Navy and the Marine Corps use over what percentage?
1. 25% only
2. 45% only
3. 65% only
4. 85%

Back 210

4. 85%

Front 211

The responsibility for providing material, acquisition, and life-cycle support for space systems, C3I, and undersea surveillance belongs to what command?
1. SPAWAR
2. SPADOC
3. NAVSPACOM
4. NAVSUPPSYSCOM

Back 211

1. SPAWAR

Front 212

The naval component of USSPACECOM is what organization?
1. NAVSPACECOM
2. NAVSPASURCOM
3. NAVSPASUBCOM
4. NAVSPAEROCOM

Back 212

1. NAVSPACECOM

Front 213

The naval component of USSPACECOM manages which of the following
systems?
1. ROTHR
2. NAVSOC
3. TENCAP
4. ASPADOC

Back 213

1. ROTHR

(And FLTSAT, LEASAT, and UFO)

Front 214

The Naval Space Command (NAVSPACECOM) has a mission to maintain a constant surveillance of space and to provide satellite data as directed by which of
the following authorities?
1. Chief of Naval Operations
2. Secretary of Defense
3. Chief of Naval Operations and Secretary of Defense
4. Chief of Naval Operations, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of the Navy

Back 214

1. CNO

Front 215

In addition to supporting the USSPACECOM as a dedicated sensor in the Worldwide Space Surveillance Network, NAVSPACECOM also serves in which of the following capacities?
1. Alternate NORAD Command Post (ANCP)
2. Alternate Space Control Center (ASCC)
3. Alternate Space CORAD Surveillance Center (ASCSC)
4. Alternate Space Defense Operations Center (ASDOC)

Back 215

2. Alternate Space Control Center (ASCC)

Front 216

In the north-south direction, NAVSPACECOM's electronic fence can detect objects in space at what maximum height, in nautical miles?
1. 5,000
2. 10,000
3. 15,000
4. 20,000

Back 216

3. 15,000

Front 217

The NAVSPACECOM fence receivers detect what total number of satellite observations per month?
1. 150,000 only
2. 500,000 only
3. 750,000 only
4. 1,000,000

Back 217

4. 1,000,000

Front 218

The only Navy organization that performs all space related functions, including satellite launch support, orbit insertion, satellite commanding and system monitoring, and network scheduling is known by what name?
1. USSPACECOM
2. NAVSPACOM
3. NAVSOC
4. NRL

Back 218

3. NAVSOC

Front 219

An up-to-date catalog of all objects in space is maintained by NAVSPACECOM.
This catalog serves as a direct backup to the space object catalog maintained by the USSPACECOM and contains more than what total number of observed objects?
1. 2,000
2. 5,000
3. 7,000
4. 10,000

Back 219

4. 10,000

(1998)

Front 220

Uplinks of Navy messages, weather broadcasts, and tactical surveillance intelligence distribution are provided by which of the following organizations?
1. Naval Communications Units
2. Naval Telecommunications Centers
3. Naval Electromagnetic Spectrum Centers
4. Naval Computer and Telecommunications Area Master Stations

Back 220

4. NCTAMS

Front 221

Of the following space centers, which one is responsible for the development and operation of unmanned Earth-orbiting spacecraft, including the Hubble Space Telescope?
1. Goddard
2. Johnson
3. Marshall
4. Stennis

Back 221

1. Goddard
Greenbelt, Maryland

Front 222

The primary responsibility for the development of large spacecraft propulsion systems and launch vehicles, including the Apollo Saturn V Moon rocket, lies with what space center?
1. Goddard
2. Johnson
3. Marshall
4. Stennis

Back 222

3. Marshall
Huntsville, Alabama

Front 223

The Deep Space Tracking Network is operated by what entity?
1. Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL)
2. Langley Research Center (LaRC)
3. Lewis Research Center (LeRC)
4. Ames Research Center (ARC)

Back 223

1. Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL)
Pasadena, California

Front 224

The way was paved for the Magellan radar mapping mission to Venus by missions conducted by what entity?
1. Ames Research Center (ARC)
2. Lewis Research Center (LeRC)
3. Langley Research Center (LaRC)
4. Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL)

Back 224

4. Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL)

Front 225

Basic research in aeronautics and space technology is conducted at what location?
1. Ames Research Center (ARC)
2. Lewis Research Center (LeRC)
3. Langley Research Center (LaRC)
4. Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL)

Back 225

3. Langley Research Center (LaRC)
Hampton, Virginia

Front 226

Advanced research and development in satellite communications systems is conducted at what location?
1. Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL)
2. Langley Research Center (LaRC)
3. Lewis Research Center (LeRC)
4. Ames Research Center (ARC)

Back 226

3. Lewis Research Center (LeRC)
Cleveland, Ohio

Front 227

The space shuttle external tank is manufactured and assembled at what NASA
facility?
1. Goddard Space Flight Center
2. White Sands Test Facility
3. Michoud Assembly Facility
4. Slidell Computer Complex

Back 227

3. Michoud Assembly Facility
East New Orleans, Louisiana

Front 228

The Sun rotates on a how many day cycle?
1. 23 days
2. 25 days
3. 27 days
4. 29 days

Back 228

3. 27 days

Front 229

A solar cycle is determined by the rise and fall of sunspot frequency, which has what range of activity?
1. 4 years peak to peak
2. 7 years peak to peak
3. 11 years peak to peak
4. 15 years peak to peak

Back 229

3. 11 years peak to peak

Front 230

The aurora that occurs in the northern latitudes of 65° to 70° is known by what name?
1. Aurora Borealis
2. Aurora Africanis
3. Aurora Australis
4. Aurora Polaris

Back 230

1. Aurora Borealis

Front 231

What are some of the primary hazards in space that can affect spacecraft?
1. Thermal variations, macroscopic bodies, radiation and upper atmosphere
density variations
2. Photoelectrons, acceleration, man-made debris, and galactic ions
3. Meteoroids, electrons, weightlessness, and vibration
4. Solar flares, solar particles, photoelectrons, and noise

Back 231

1. Thermal variations, macroscopic bodies, radiation and upper atmosphere

Front 232

Proton radiation particles can travel at the speed of light and can reach the Earth and low-Earth orbit in a total of approximately how many minutes?
1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8

Back 232

4. 8

Front 233

The Earth is protected from space radiation by which of the following elements?
1. Ionosphere and geomagnetic field
2. Deep atmosphere and Van Allen Belts
3. Geomagnetic field and deep atmosphere
4. Ionosphere and Van Allen Belts

Back 233

3. Geomagnetic field and deep atmosphere

Front 234

Satellites in low Earth orbit (LEO) and low inclination are generally shielded, not by the atmosphere, but by which of the following elements?
1. Van Allen belts
2. Magnetic field
3. Ionosphere
4. Exosphere

Back 234

2. Magnetic field

Front 235

With regard to spacecraft charging, even weak discharges may bring about which
of the following events?
1. Electronic switching only
2. Breakdown of thermal switching only
3. Solar cell and optical sensor degradation only
4. Electronic switching, breakdown of thermal coatings, and solar cell and optical sensor degradation

Back 235

4. Electronic switching, breakdown of thermal coatings, and solar cell and optical sensor degradation

Front 236

The entire assortment of all the solid pieces in interplanetary space is known as what complex?
1. Meteoritic complex
2. Astronomical complex
3. Cosmological complex
4. Intergalactic complex

Back 236

1. Meteoritic complex

Front 237

What is a particle while it is moving in space called?
1. Meteor
2. Meteoroid
3. Meteorite
4. Micrometeorite

Back 237

2. Meteoroid

Front 238

What is a particle departing space and leaving a glowing trail as it burns up in the atmosphere called?
1. Meteor
2. Meteoroid
3. Meteorite
4. Micrometeorite

Back 238

1. Meteor

Front 239

The environmental stress level which a space system can survive is known as what attribute?
1. Armoring
2. Bunkering
3. Hardness
4. Survivability

Back 239

3. Hardness

Front 240

When describing nuclear weapons, one kiloton of TNT is defined to be how many calories?
1. 10,000 (10 thousand or 103)
2. 10,000,000 (10 million or 106)
3. 10,000,000,000 (10 billion or 109)
4. 10,000,000,000,000 (10 trillion or 1012)

Back 240

4. 10 to the twelfth power

Front 241

What is DoD’s only space “weather forecasting” squadron?
1. VQ-2 Detachment Athens, Greece
2. 7th SOP Cape Canaveral Air Force Station, Florida
3. VR-24 Detachment Rota, Spain
4. 55SWXS Schreiver AFB, Colorado

Back 241

4. 55SWXS Schreiver AFB, Colorado

Front 242

The study of trajectories and orbits of stars and planets is called celestial mechanics. What term refers to the study of the trajectories and orbits of manmade objects in space?
1. Celestial reckoning
2. Orbital mechanics
3. Celestial navigation
4. Orbital navigation

Back 242

2. Orbital mechanics

Front 243

One of the earliest known attempts to describe the location of the planets, the Sun, the Moon, and their motions with respect to each other was made by what early astronomer/mathematician?
1. Ptolemy
2. Aristotle
3. Pythagoras
4. Aristarchus

Back 243

3. Pythagoras

Front 244

Who was the early astronomer who deduced that the closer a planet is to the Sun, the greater its orbital speed?
1. Brahe
2. Ptolemy
3. Copernicus
4. Aristarchus

Back 244

3. Copernicus

Front 245

The provision of gravitational attraction to the satellite to keep the satellite in its elliptical orbit is known as what law?
1. Law of Areas
2. Law of Inertia
3. Law of Ellipses
4. Law of Harmonics

Back 245

1. Law of Areas

Front 246

The farther a satellite is from the Earth, the longer it will take to complete its orbit, the greater the distance it will travel, and the slower its average speed is known as what law?
1. Law of Areas
2. Law of Inertia
3. Law of Ellipses
4. Law of Harmonics

Back 246

4. Law of Harmonics

Front 247

Who was the first scientist to develop and use a telescope?
1. Copernicus
2. Aristotle
3. Galileo
4. Kepler

Back 247

3. Galileo

Front 248

Which of the following statements best describes Newton's First Law of Motion?
1. There is an equal and opposite reaction for every action
2. Each planet moves in an elliptical orbit with the Sun at one focus and the other focus empty
3. Any two objects in the universe attract each other with a force directly proportional to the product of their masses
4. A body in motion will keep moving at the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an external force

Back 248

4. Law of Inertia

Front 249

The formula F=G*(m1*m2)/d2 describes what law?
1. Law of Universal Gravitation
2. Law of Action and Reaction
3. Law of Harmonics
4. Law of Inertia

Back 249

1. Law of Universal Gravitation

Front 250

For an object to achieve orbit, it must be projected above the Earth's atmosphere, which extends approximately what total number of miles?
1. 40
2. 50
3. 60
4. 70

Back 250

3. 60 miles

Front 251

When an object's burnout velocity results in an elliptical orbit, the orbital point farthest from the center of the Earth is referred to by what name?
1. Apogee
2. Perigee
3. Bolide Point
4. Equilibrium

Back 251

1. Apogee

Front 252

What six parameters form the orbital set and establish the size, shape, and orientation of an orbit in space?
1. Semi-Major Axis; Time; Prograde; Retrograde; Eccentricity; and Inclination
2. Inclination; Time; Semi-Major Axis; Right Ascension of the Ascending Node; Argument of Perigee; and Eccentricity
3. Eccentricity; Retrograde; Equatorial Angle; Prograde; Polar Angle; and Argument of Perigee
4. Right Ascension of the Ascending Node; Eccentricity; Inclination; Time; Semi-Major Axis; and Prograde

Back 252

2. Inclination; Time; Semi-Major Axis; Right Ascension of the Ascending Node; Argument of Perigee; and Eccentricity

Front 253

To orient the orbital plane with respect to the Earth, what factor is used?
1. Time
2. Perigee
3. Inclination
4. Eccentricity

Back 253

3. Inclination

Front 254

To locate a satellite in space, what coordinate system is used?
1. Topocentric
2. Geocentric
3. Geographic
4. Orbital

Back 254

2. Geocentric

Front 255

Locating reference systems are classified as what two basic types?
1. Geographic and Inertial
2. Orbital and Non-Inertial
3. Inertial and Non-Inertial
4. Geocentric and Topocentric

Back 255

3. Inertial and Non-Intertial

Front 256

Regarding mission planning and the subsequent design of a satellite, which of the following facets is one of the most restrictive?
1. Satellite velocity
2. Satellite inclination
3. Atmospheric conditions
4. Total launch environment

Back 256

4. Total launch environment

Front 257

Since the Earth rotates from West to East, all points on the Earth's surface have what type of velocity?
1. Westward
2. Eastward
3. Southward
4. Northward

Back 257

2. Eastward

Front 258

When a satellite is launched into space, it typically must change its orbit at least how many times to perform its mission?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

Back 258

1. One

Front 259

In satellite mission planning, which of the following factors is critical to mission life?
1. Fuel consumption
2. Food consumption
3. Congeniality of crew
4. Comfort of working spaces

Back 259

1. Fuel consumption

Front 260

What are the two encompassing types of plane maneuvers?
1. In-plane and out-of-plane
2. Eccentricity and in-plane
3. Out-of-plane and inclination
4. Right ascension and Left ascension

Back 260

1. In-plane and out-of-plane

Front 261

A two-impulse maneuver between two coplanar orbits is known as what type of movement?
1. Bakal Movement
2. Hohmann Transfer
3. Heimlich Maneuver
4. Intra-orbital Impulse

Back 261

2. Hohmann Transfer

Front 262

A satellite's ground track is formed by what factor?
1. The right angle of the Earth's surface and a perpendicular line between the Earth's center and the satellite
2. The intersection of the Earth's surface and a line between the Earth's center and the satellite
3. The parallel of the Earth's Equator as the satellite passes overhead
4. The satellite's changing of its orbital plane as it encircles the Earth

Back 262

2. The intersection of the Earth's surface and a line between the Earth's center and the satellite

Front 263

The field of view of a satellite is defined as the area of the Earth's surface that is in view from that satellite at any given time.
1. True
2. False

Back 263

1. True

Front 264

A satellite in an orbit between 150 and 800 miles above the Earth is said to be in what type of orbit?
1. Elliptical
2. Geosynchronous
3. Semi-synchronous
4. Low Earth orbit

Back 264

4. Low Earth Orbit

Front 265

A satellite placed in a low-inclination circular orbit at an altitude of approximately 19,300 nautical miles will have an angular velocity exactly equal to that of the
1. Moon
2. Earth
3. stratosphere
4. magnetosphere

Back 265

2. Earth

Front 266

A Molniya orbit is also known as what type of orbit?
1. Low-Earth circular
2. Sun-synchronous
3. Geosynchronous
4. Elliptical

Back 266

3. Geosynchronous

Front 267

When NASA wishes to place a satellite in space that will allow a user to receive signals from more than one satellite at any time, the satellite is launched into what type of orbit?
1. Geosynchronous
2. Sun-synchronous
3. Semi-synchronous
4. Low-Earth Circular

Back 267

3. Semi-synchronous

Front 268

The apogee of a low-Earth orbit is circularized and decreased by what factor?
1. Electromagnetic forces
2. Earth's asymmetry
3. Atmospheric drag
4. Radiation

Back 268

2. Earth's asymmetry

Front 269

After the radiation field leaves an antenna, what is the relationship between the E and H fields with respect to (a) phase and (b) physical displacement in space?
1. (a) In phase (b) 90 degrees
2. (a) Out of phase (b) 90 degrees
3. (a) In phase (b) 180 degrees
4. (a) Out of phase (b) 180 degrees

Back 269

2. (a) Out of phase (b) 90 degrees

Front 270

What term is used to describe the basic frequency of a radio wave?

Back 270

fundamental frequency

Front 271

Which two composite fields (composed of E and H fields) are associated with every antenna?

Back 271

Induction and radiation

Front 272

What composite field (composed of E and H fields) is found stored in the antenna?

Back 272

induction field

Front 273

What composite field (composed of E and H fields) is propagated into free space?

Back 273

radiation field; the E and H fields are in phase with each other

Front 274

What is the term used to describe a whole number multiple of the basic frequency of a radio wave?

Back 274

harmonic

Front 275

A __________ polarized antenna transmits an electromagnetic wave with the E field perpendicular to the Earth's surface.

Back 275

vertically

Front 276

A _______________ polarized antenna transmits a radio wave with the E field parallel to the Earth's surface.

Back 276

horizontally

Front 277

A _________________ is a small section of expanding sphere of radiated energy and is perpendicular to the direction of travel from the antenna.

Back 277

wavefront

Front 278

_____________ are electromagnetic waves that can be reflected, refracted, and diffracted in the atmosphere like light and heat waves.

Back 278

radio waves

Front 279

_____________________ are waves that have been reflected from a surface and are 180 degrees out of phase with the initial wave.

Back 279

Reflected radio waves

Front 280

The earth's atmosphere is divided into what three separate layers?

Back 280

troposphere, stratosphere, and ionosphere

Front 281

________________ is the region of the atmosphere where virtually all weather phenomena take place. In this region rf energy is greatly affected.

Back 281

troposphere

Front 282

_________ has a constant temperature and has little effect on radio waves.

Back 282

Stratosphere

Front 283

__________________ contains four cloud-like layers of electrically charged ions which aid in long distance communications.

Back 283

Ionosphere

Front 284

What are two basic types of radio waves that transmit energy from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna?

Back 284

ground waves and sky waves

Front 285

Ground waves are composed of what two separate component waves?

Back 285

Surface wave and space wave

Front 286

________________ travel along the contour of the Earth by diffraction.

Back 286

Surface waves

Front 287

____________________ can travel through the air directly to the receiving antenna or can be reflected from the surface of the Earth.

Back 287

Space waves

Front 288

__________, often called ionospheric waves, are radiated in an upward direction and returned to the Earth at some distant location because of refraction.

Back 288

Sky waves

Front 289

__________________ is the line of sight horizon.

Back 289

Natural horizon

Front 290

_______________________ is one-third farther than the natural horizon.

Back 290

Radio horizon

Front 291

___________________ consists of several layers of ions, formed by the process called ionization.

Back 291

Ionosphere

Front 292

________________ is the process of knocking electrons free from their parent atom, thus upsetting electrical neutrality.

Back 292

Ionization

Front 293

______________ is the opposite of ionization; that is, the free ions combine with positive ions, causing the positive ions to return to their original neutral atom state.

Back 293

Recombination

Front 294

___________ is the lowest region of the ionosphere and refracts signals of low frequencies back to Earth. From about 30-55 miles.

Back 294

The D Layer

Front 295

____________ is present during the daylight hours; refracts signals as high as 20 megahertz back to Earth; and is used for communications up to 1500 miles. Limits are from about 55 to 90 miles.

Back 295

E Layer

Front 296

What layer is responsible for high-frequency, long-range transmission? Exists from about 90-240 miles.

Back 296

F Layer

Front 297

What is the maximum frequency that a radio wave can be transmitted vertically and still be refracted back to Earth?

Back 297

Critical frequency

Front 298

What is the maximum and or minimum angle that a radio wave can be transmitted and still refracted back to Earth?

Back 298

Critical angle

Front 299

What is the distance between the transmitter and the point where the sky wave first returns to the Earth?

Back 299

Skip Distance

Front 300

The zone of silence between the point where the ground wave becomes too weak for reception and the point where the sky wave is first returned to Earth.

Back 300

Skip Zone

Front 301

What causes fading?

Back 301

variations in signal strength, such as absorption of the rf energy by the ionosphere

Front 302

What causes multipath fading?

Back 302

Occurs when a transmitted signal divides and takes more than one path to a receiver and some of the signals arrive out of phase, resulting in a weak or fading signal.

Front 303

What are some transmission losses?

Back 303

ionospheric absorption, ground reflection, free-space losses

Front 304

What is the highest frequency that can be used for communications between two locations at a given angle of incidence and time of day?

Back 304

Maximum Usable Frequency

Front 305

Precipitation attenuation

Back 305

caused by rain, fog, snow, and hail; and can affect overall communications considerably

Front 306

What causes channels, or ducts, of cool air to form between layers of warm air, which can cause radio waves to travel far beyond the normal line-of-sight distances?

Back 306

Temperature inversion

Front 307

What uses the scattering principle to achieve beyond the line-of-sight radio communications within the troposphere?

Back 307

Tropospheric propagation

Front 308

What is a conductor, or system of conductors, that radiates or receives energy in the form of electromagnetic waves?

Back 308

Antenna

Front 309

What are the two basic classifications of antennas?

Back 309

Hertz (half wave) and Marconi (quarter wave)

Front 310

What is the amount of resistance which, if inserted in place of the antenna, would consume the same amount of power that is actually radiated by the antenna?

Back 310

Radiation resistance

Front 311

How can radiation patterns be plotted?

Back 311

Rectangular coordinate graph or Polar coordinate graph

Front 312

What radiates equally in all directions?

Back 312

An isotropic radiator

Front 313

What radiates energy directionally?

Back 313

An anisotropic radiator

Front 314

What is the difference between lobe and null?

Back 314

Lobe is the area of the pattern that is covered by radiation and null is the are that has minimum radiation.

Front 315

What is antenna loading?

Back 315

changing the electrical length of an antenna by inserting a variable inductor or capacitor in a series with the antenna in order to keep the antenna in resonance with the applied frequency

Front 316

What type of antenna consists of two lengths of rod or tubing, each a quarter wave long at a certain frequency, which radiates a doughnut pattern?

Back 316

Half-wave antenna (Hertz)

Front 317

What type of antenna is a half-wave antenna cut in half with one end grounded?

Back 317

Quarter wave antenna

Front 318

What is used to reduce losses caused by the ground in the immediate vicinity of the antenna? (a) is buried below the surface and (b) is installed above ground.

Back 318

(a) ground screen
(b) counterpoise

Front 319

What array derives its power directly from the source?
(a) driven array
(b) parasitic array
(c) collinear array
(d) broadside array

Back 319

(a) driven array

Front 320

What array has elements parallel and in the same plane and maximum radiation develops in the plane at right angles to the plane of the elements?
(a) driven array
(b) parasitic array
(c) collinear array
(d) broadside array

Back 320

(d) broadside array

Front 321

What array derives its power by coupling the energy from the other elements of the antenna?
(a) driven array
(b) parasitic array
(c) collinear array
(d) broadside array

Back 321

(b) parasitic array

Front 322

What array has elements in a straight line and maximum radiation occurs at right angles to this line?
(a) driven array
(b) parasitic array
(c) collinear array
(d) broadside array

Back 322

(c) collinear array

Front 323

What array has elements parallel to each other in the same plane and maximum radiation occurs along the axis of the array?

Back 323

end-fire array

Front 324

When is the gain of a collinear antenna greatest?
- When elements are spaced
(a) .5 to 1 wavelength apart
(b) .3 to .4 wavelength apart
(c) .4 to .5 wavelength apart
(d) 1 to 1.5 wavelength apart

Back 324

(c) .4 to .5 wavelength apart

Front 325

Optimum gain of a broadside array is obtained when elements are spaced:
(a) .3 wavelength apart
(b) .4 wavelength apart
(c) .5 wavelength apart
(d) .65 wavelength apart

Back 325

(d) .65 wavelength apart

Front 326

What antenna is a wavelength or more at the operating frequency?
(a) v antenna
(b) long wire antenna
(c) rhombic antenna
(d) beverage antenna

Back 326

(b) Long wire antenna

Front 327

What antenna is a bi-directional antenna consisting of two horizontal, long wires arranged to form a V?
(a) long wire antenna
(b) beverage antenna
(c) turnstile antenna
(d) v antenna

Back 327

(d) v antenna

Front 328

What antenna has a wide frequency range, is easy to construct and maintain, and is noncritical as far as operation and adjustment are concerned?
(a) rhombic antenna
(b) long wire antenna
(c) turnstile antenna
(d) v antenna

Back 328

(a) rhombic antenna

Front 329

What antenna consists of a single wire that is two or more wavelengths long?
(a) long wire antenna
(b) beverage antenna
(c) v antenna
(d) rhombic antenna

Back 329

(b) beverage antenna

Front 330

What antenna consists of two horizontal, half-wire antennas mounted at right angles to each other?
(a) v antenna
(b) beverage antenna
(c) turnstile antenna
(d) rhombic antenna

Back 330

(c) turnstile antenna

Front 331

The polarity of a radio wave is determined by the orientation of (a) what moving field with respect to (b) what reference?
1. (a) Electric (b) earth
2. (a) Electric (b) antenna
3. (a) Magnetic (b) antenna
4. (a) Magnetic (b) earth

Back 331

1. (a) Electric (b) earth

Front 332

Energy radiated from an antenna is considered horizontally polarized under which of the following conditions?
1. If the wavefront is in the horizontal plane
2. If the magnetic field is in the horizontal plane
3. If the electric field is in the horizontal plane
4. If the induction field is in the horizontal plane

Back 332

3. If the electric field is in the horizontal plane

Front 333

Ionization in the atmosphere is produced chiefly by which of the following types of radiation?
1. Alpha radiation
2. Cosmic radiation
3. Infrared radiation
4. Ultraviolet radiation

Back 333

4. Ultraviolet

Front 334

Optimum Working Frequency (fot) is about _________ of the Maximum Usable Frequency (muf).
1. 50%
2. 65%
3. 75%
4. 85%

Back 334

4. 85%

Front 335

How many types of discharges are there?

Back 335

5

Front 336

What types of military discharge are there?

Back 336

Honorable
General
Other Than Honorable
Bad Conduct
Dishonorable

Front 337

The punitive articles of the UCMJ are from ___ to ___.

Back 337

77 to 134

Front 338

Article 86

Back 338

AWOL

Front 339

Article 87

Back 339

Missing Movement

Front 340

Article 92

Back 340

Failure to obey order or regulation

Front 341

Article 111

Back 341

Drunken or reckless driving

Front 342

Article 112

Back 342

Drunk on duty

Front 343

Article 113

Back 343

Misconduct of a sentinel

Front 344

Article 115

Back 344

Malingering

Front 345

Article 118

Back 345

Murder

Front 346

Article 119

Back 346

Manslaughter

Front 347

Article 120

Back 347

Rape

Front 348

Article 122

Back 348

Robbery

Front 349

Article 123

Back 349

Forgery

Front 350

Article 126

Back 350

Arson

Front 351

Article 128

Back 351

Assault

Front 352

Article 129

Back 352

Burglary

Front 353

Article 130

Back 353

Housebreaking

Front 354

I am an American, fighting in the forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense.

Back 354

Code of Conduct Article 1

Front 355

I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist.

Back 355

Code of Conduct Article 2

Front 356

If I am captured I will continue to resist, by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.

Back 356

Code of Conduct Article 3

Front 357

If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information or take part in any action that might be harmful to my comrades. If I am senior, I will take command. If not I will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them up in every way.

Back 357

Code of Conduct Article 4

Front 358

When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number, and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause.

Back 358

Cody of Conduct Article 5

Front 359

I will never forget that I am an American, fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions and dedicated to the principles which made my country free. I will trust in my God and in the United States of America.

Back 359

Code of Conduct Article 6

Front 360

Which courts-martial consists of one commissioned officer?
1. Summary Court-Martial
2. Special Court-Martial
3. General Court-Martial

Back 360

1. Summary Court-Martial

Front 361

A special court-martial consists of:
1. one member
2. three members
3. five members
4. four members

Back 361

2. three members

Front 362

Which courts-martial consists of one judge and not less than five members?
1. Summary court-martial
2. Special court-martial
3. General court-martial
4. Civil court-martial

Back 362

3. General court-martial