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400 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the purpose of the CG Frequency Classification?
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To eliminate confusion when referring to transmitters that are capable of spanning two frequency bands.
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What is the frequency range of CG Medium Frequency (MF)?
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250-525 kHz
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What is the frequency range of CG High Frequency (HF)?
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2.0-30.0 MHz
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What is the frequency range of CG Very High Frequency (VHF)?
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118-175 MHz
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What is the frequency range of CG Ultra High Frequency (UHF)?
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225-400 MHz
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What is Frequency tolerance dependent upon?
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Fixed or mobile use frequency type of emission
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What does VTS stand for?
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Vessel Traffic Service
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This system enhances the Coast Guard’s (CG’s) ability to monitor and provide advisories to vessels in specific ports and provides the capability to document traffic incidents and conditions for later analysis.
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VTS System
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How many remote sites may a VTS system include?
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24 Remote Sites
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The _______ is a land-based system that receives and processes Global Positioning System (GPS) satellite position information.
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DGPS
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DGPS provides mariners with reliable position accuracy of better than ___ meters when navigating in harbor and harbor approach areas of the continental United States Alaska Hawaii and Puerto Rico.
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10 Meters
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DGPS broadcasts corrections via _______ frequency transmitters to DGPS user receivers in the coverage area.
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Medium Frequency
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The ____ employees approximately ____ satellites that are in very high polar orbits.
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GPS - 26
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The GPS system is designed so that ___ to _____ satellites are in view at any time and from any position.
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6-11
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A minimum of ____ satellites must be used to obtain a GPS fix.
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3
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DGPS is controlled from 2 control stations- where are they and what are they called?
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Alexandria, VA – NAVCEN Petaluma, CA – NAVCEN (Detachment)
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________ is required for maintenance of XB designated equipment
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General-purpose electronic test equipment (GPETE)
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Shipboard radars operate in what regions of the frequency spectrum?
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VHF, L-Band and X-Band
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Shore-based RADARS operate in what region of the frequency spectrum?
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X-Band
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What are the 3 types of RADARS used within the CG?
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Shipboard, Shore-based and Repeaters
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True or False? The IFF transponder equipment replies automatically?
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True
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What is IFF code 7700?
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Emergency
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What is IFF code 7600?
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Loss of Communication
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TACAN system operating limit is ______
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Line of sight
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The actual operating range of TACAN is dependent upon _________
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The airplane’s altitude and terrain
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How many channels are available on TACAN?
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252
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_____ equipment in the CG is used for locating persons in distress and navigation.
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ADF (automatic direction finder)
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Which type of ADF uses a 4 element doublet?
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VHF
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True or False? The ADF antenna should be mounted at the highest possible location?
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True
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What can be done to reduce susceptibility to re-radiation at a UHF or VHF frequency for ADF antennas?
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Increasing the aperture and the number of antenna elements
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What enables the vessel to maintain postion and heading automatically and eiter maintain speed and direction or follow and maintain track?
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Dynamic Positioning System (DPS)
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Provides remote control monitoring and alarm annunciation of the ship’s propulsion and machinery systems.
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Machinery Plant Control and Monitoring System (MPCMS)
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Provides a distributed digital communications capability that enable data exchange among the connected systems. & Supports integration of ship control systems including the onbard navigational system sensors and DPS MPCMS and ECPINS
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Survivable Adaptable Fiber Optic Embedded Network (SAFENET) Local Area Network (LAN)
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Is a computerized navigational aid that displays an electronic chart and data from navigation sensors machinery plant information from the MPCMS and buoy data that is derived from a buoy data base.
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Electronic Chart Precise Integrated Navigation System (ECPINS)
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Maintenance Level: Organizational
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Assigned vessel personnel perform preventative and corrective maintenance.
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Maintenance Level: Intermediate
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The applicable Maintenance and Logistics Command (MLC) and/or their subordinate units perform corrective maintenance that is beyond the capability of the assigned organizational level personnel.
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Maintenance Level: Depot
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The SFLC performs consisting of repairing and stocking the following items:
Modules Assemblies Components |
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Maintenance Level: Systems Management and Engineering Facility (SMEF)
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Provides “last stop” technical and engineering assistance for maintenance beyond the capabilities of the organizational and intermediate level.
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Optical Surveillance Systems (OSS)
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-Consistes of a Low Light Level Television and an infrared/High Intensity searchlight mounted on a two axis stabilized positioned that are remotely operated from the pilothouse
-Is integrated with the Fire Control Systems and SCCS -supplies viedo to the SCCS for display and recording -is for surveillance operations, for visual navigation, and as a fire control check sight |
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Before working on electrical and electronic equipment personnel must receive training in: (4 answers)
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-hazards inherent in working electrical and electronic equipment
-accident prevention -CPR -First aid procedures |
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When filtering primary power lines to reduce EMI provide____________to prevent an electrical hazard.
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Bleeder Circuitry
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Unless bleeder circuitry is proved power line filter capacitors remain ________ after power is withdrawn.
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Charged
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Terminals must be _________ prior to touching capacitors.
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Shorted
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Ensure that _______ ________ are affixed to and clearly visible on all power line filters.
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Safety decals
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_________ _________ equipment is the preferred safeguard to prevent inadvertent operation of control switches.
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Locking out
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A ______ ______ _______ must be used when handling cutting or grinding hazardous materials.
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Face protective shield
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What is the required size of face protective shields
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10 inches by 18 inches
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________ ____________ must be used when working with hazardous materials.
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Safety goggles
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Rubber insulating gloves are rated for voltages less than _________ VAC to ground and high voltages of _______ and _______ VAC to ground
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5000 and 7,500 and 17000
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For both men and women gloves rated for high voltages must be ____ inches in total length with a ____ inch gauntlet.
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14, 4
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True or False Leather protective gloves must be used over rubber insulating gloves to protect them from damage
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True
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How do you inspect gloves for pinholes before using?
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Trap air inside and squeeze to increase the air pressure
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Visually inspect gloves for cracks cuts, blisters, and chemical damage in accordance with __________.
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ASTM D1700
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When working on live electrical circuits of 30 volts or more non-conductive shoes that meet _________ requirements must be worn.
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ANSI-Z41
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What does ANSI stand for?
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American National Standards Institute
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Shorting probes are rated at _______ volts
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25,000
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________ __________ are grounded and placed around antennae or antenna lead-ins wherever personnel might come in contact with the electrical hazard.
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Protection cages
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____ _____ _____ _____ constructed of non-conductive material are installed to completely enclose the immediate area around the base of transmitting antennae or towers on shore.
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Single gated protection fences
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Rubber floor matting must be approved and in compliance with the specification contained in __________.
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MIL-DTL-15562
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______ _________ ________ must be installed in open spaces around electrical and electronic equipment aboard ships and at shore facilities.
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Rubber floor matting
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The seams between the rubber matting must be sealed at a minimum with ____________.
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Four-inch wide 3M electrical insulating tape
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True or False: Matting with cracks tears or any type of deterioration must be replaced?
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True
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How do you protect high traffic areas of electrical matting?
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Cover with runner strips of matting of the same type as the permanently installed matting
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What should not be placed on or used on rubber matting?
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Rugs or waxes
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Testing of rubber floor matting must be done in accordance with the _________ requirements or manufacturer instructions.
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ASTM D178
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A ______ __________ must be affixed to equipment with more than one power source that is ___ volts or more.
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Labeling plate, 12 volts
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A ____inch by ___ inch cardboard safety tag with an attached cord, must be attached to equipment when personnel are working on circuits.
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7 ½ inch by 4 inch
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What is the size and material requirements for the danger sign for whenever personnel are working aloft servicing equipment on masts or towers?
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Size: 10 inches by 18 ½ inches
Material: Steel with a baked enamel finish |
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A ___________must be posted in all spaces where explosive vapors (such as fuel vapor paint fumes cleaning primers and battery gases) may accumulate.
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warning sign
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Do not energize electronic equipment until ventilation blowers have been operating a minimum of _____ minutes to expel explosive vapors.
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Five
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Personnel working aloft must be aware of the hazards which include:
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falling
exposure to excessive electromagnetic radiation (EMR) and radio frequency (RF) burns |
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Who ensures that a Working Aloft Program and Bill are established at all underway units?
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EMO or Senior Technician
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Who maintains the Working Aloft Bill and provides annual training to all personnel in underway units involved in working aloft?
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EMO
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Shore units and personnel involved in working on energized towers, including Loran towers must comply with what manual?
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Tower Manual
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Who must permission to work aloft be obtained from?
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The Officer of the Deck (OOD)
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Are man-aloft chits required?
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No, only notification to the OOD is required a man aloft chit is the common practice.
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Who must be notified of any unsafe conditions or safety violations?
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CO
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A personal fall arrest system consists of what components?
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Safety climbing device.
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The full body harness is constructed of material that meets what standard?
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(ANSI) Z359.1-199
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Strength components of the full body harness must be made of?
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Synthetic fibers
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Where is the D –ring located on a full body harness?
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The center of the back near the shoulder level
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A ________ ________ is a shock absorbing fall restraint device that attaches to the body harness.
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Deceleration lanyard
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What is the maximum length of the deceleration lanyard?
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6 feet
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Safe holds for ascending and descending masts and towers include:
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Closed-loop mast ladder rungs and pipe railings
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What are the three components of the three points of contact?
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• one hand
• one foot, and • the personal fall arrest system. |
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A confined space is defined as any space having what characteristics:
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limited opening for entry and exit
• unfavorable natural ventilation, or • unfavorable design for continuous occupancy of workers. |
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Who maintains the unit confined space policy and provides training for entering and working in confined spaces?
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Maintenance and Logistics Commands (MLCs), and
the cognizant Integrated Support Commands (ISCs) |
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Who ensures that training certificates documenting the training received by personnel are completed and available for inspection?
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The CO or designee
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What information must be documented on training certificates for confined spaces?
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• employee’s name
• dates of training, and • signatures or initials of trainers |
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How should you dress to avoid becoming overheated while working in cold weather?
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Wear several layers of thin clothing
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True or False: It is better to be slightly chilly than to perspire heavily.
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True
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While working in cold weather you can reduce blood circulation restriction and risk for frostbite and trench foot by:
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Wearing loose clothing and footwear.
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To protect your eyes from eyestrain and snow blindness you should:
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Wear sunglasses or goggles with tinted lenses
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What are the symptoms of frostbite?
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Skin that is blue-ish in color, and numb but not painful.
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What should you do to prevent frostbite?
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Work in pairs and check each other for symptoms of frostbite
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True or false:
To prevent tissue damage you should rub or manipulate skin when frostbite is suspected. |
False
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What precautions should you take when working on exposed equipment in cold weather?
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• use windshields and screens
• wear gloves to handle very cold metal objects (skin will instantly freeze to very cold metal even if the metal is dry), and • take frequent breaks with hot drinks and food to maintain your efficiency. |
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In cold weather what will happen to skin within seconds after coming into volatile liquids such as gasoline?
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It will freeze
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Who is responsible for ensuring that all personnel who work with energized electrical equipment receive cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) training.?
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The EMO, supervisor or senior technician
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A large capacitor usually has a ______ _______ across the terminal.
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Shorting wire
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Capacitors in storage may accumulate a ______ charge.
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Static
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How long do you hold a shorting probe on a terminal when shorting a capacitor?
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30 seconds
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How do you test for residual voltage after shorting a capacitor?
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Using a voltmeter
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Before working on energized circuits rated at more than _______ volts, Tests to measure the voltages must be performed.
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300
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When working on energized circuits rated at 30-300 volts you must use:
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Rubber insulating gloves, and insulated hand tools.
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Who may perform tests on electronic equipment rated between 30-300 volts?
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Qualified technicians
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What is required to be done before using portable electric tools?
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They must be properly grounded to prevent electric shock
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If power panels or circuit breakers are not located in the same room and easily accessible from the workbench what must be installed?
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Power kill switches or disconnects
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Power kill switches or disconnects must be located where?
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Each workbench and piece of electronic equipment and be easily accessible
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True or false it is sometimes ok to use spliced cables or tools that are damaged.
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False
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Portable electric tools must be maintained how often to prevent serious injury and death?
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Quarterly
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When necessary inspection and repairing the motor section of portable electric tools must be supervised by whom?
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The electrical department
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Electrical systems on all ships are grounded or ungrounded?
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Ungrounded
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Electrical systems on all shore units are grounded or ungrounded?
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grounded
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Grounds on electrical systems at shore units are characterized by one hot and one grounded (neutral) in a ______ phase system.
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single
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If the presence of commercial AC/DC equipment cannot be avoided aboard ships what safety precautions must be followed?
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Installing an isolation transformer and grounding the equipment chassis
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Double insulated tools must have a non-conducting shell and _____ prong plug.
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two
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Electric tools and equipment must be equipped with a ground wire and _____ prong plug.
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three
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What are possible symptoms in an electric shock victim?
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person is unconscious
body is stiff or rigid face is pale and blueish in color pulse is extremely weak or absent, and/or electric burns are present and skin smells burnt. |
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What are the first two steps to saving a life of an electric shock victim?
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Remove the victim from the source of the electric shock and start CPR
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Seven of ten electric shock victims can be revived when CPR is begun how soon after the shock occurred?
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3 minutes
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What is the first thing you do when a person has come in contact with a live wire or circuit?
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immediately turn off the power in the circuit
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What types of batteries are used when a high current of short duration is required such as starting engines for emergency power generators?
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Lead acid
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What personal protective equipment must be used when handling lead acid batteries and battery acid?
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safety goggles
insulated rubber gloves, and a rubber apron |
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When connecting or disconnecting terminals on a lead acid battery you should:
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Loosen the filler cap completely, but do not remove it
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When connecting lead acid battery cables in what order should you connect the ground?
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Last
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When disconnecting lead acid battery cables in what order should you connect the ground?
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first
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The temperature in battery compartments must be maintained at less than _____ degrees Fahrenheit (F).
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95
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How should lead acid batteries be stored?
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In a charged state
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When is it ok to add water to battery electrolyte?
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never
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If you experience accidental exposure to the eyes with battery acid
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you should flush your eyes continuously for how long?, 15-20 minutes
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___________batteries are excellent storage batteries that provide a reliable source of power over a wide range of operating environments.
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Nickel cadmium (NiCad)
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Why can the state of charge not be determined by a voltage test on a NiCad battery?
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Because the voltage remains constant over ninety percent of the total discharge time.
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Store NiCad batteries in a fully _______state.
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discharged
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NiCad batteries are capable of operating in what temperature range?
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-140o F to +140o F
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How often must PCB – contaminated transformers and capacitors be inspected?
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Weekly
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When handling CRTs what PPE is required?
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Face shield and rubber gloves rated at 5000 volts and leather shell
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When placing a CRT on a surface how should it be placed?
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Face down on clean soft padding
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What are the two forms that ionizing radiation exists?
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electromagnetic radiation (consisting of photons) and particulate radiation (consisting of particles)
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What is the most common source of ionizing radiation?
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radioactive electron tube
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What is the purpose of radioactive material in tubes?
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ensures the reliable performance of the tubes at a given operating voltage
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All areas used to store radioactive material must be monitored every ____ days or when new stock is placed in the area?
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30
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A low intensity beta-gamma survey meter such as the AN/PDR-27 series, is recommended for monitoring what?
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radioactive materials in storage areas
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Who creates PEL boundaries?
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TISCOM
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What two body parts are particularly susceptible to tissue damage from high frequencies?
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The eyes and testes
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What is the MPE for occupational personnel?
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6 minutes
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What is the MPE for general public?
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30 minutes
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________warning signs must be posted at all PEL boundaries.
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RADHAZ
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What type of sign must be posted on PEL fences and gates?
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Type 1 on each face of the fence
Type 2 on all gates |
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Most Coast Guard radar sites operate in the _____________ band with output powers as high as 30 kW and antennae with very high gains.
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Super High Frequency
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DGPS Broadcast sites use several different types of antennae that broadcast on an MF frequency from ____ to ____ watts.
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250-2500 watts
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What is the standard PEL boundary at all DGPS sites from the broadcast antenna?
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25 feet
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What is the standard radiation hazard safety procedure for most antennae?
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Suspend operations whenever personnel are working aloft.
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How many types of RADHAZ warning signs are there?
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8
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What is the shape of the RADHAZ warning sign?
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2 Triangles on top of each other
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What is the thickness of a RADHAZ sign?
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.004 inches
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What is the material used for RADHAZ signs?
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Outdoor white vinyl
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What size RADHAZ sign is used for normal shipboard?
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5”
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What size RADHAZ sign is used for shore installations flight decks and DGPS and Communication Station (COMMSTA) broadcast sites?
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12”
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What colors are used on RADHAZ signs?
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Red and yellow checkered on upper section of triangle and black lettering on bottom.
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What is Type 3 RADHAZ
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RF Burn Hazard warning
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What is Type 1 RADHAZ
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Warning to not remain in PEL boundary
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What is type 2 RADHAZ
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Restrict personnel from proceeding past a point
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What is type 4 RADHAZ
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Warn personnel of HERF
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What is type 5 RADHAZ
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Generally used below deck in system equipment rooms
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What is type 6 RADHAZ
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Warn personnel not to use cellphones, operate transmitters or use other wireless devices
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What is type 7 RADHAZ
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Warn personnel to practice HERO safety precautions
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What is type 8 RADHAZ
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advise operators to refer to the unit Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) Emission Control Plan before operating a transmitter
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What are the 5 equipment life cycle stages?
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1. Acquisition and Procurement
2. Installation 3. Equipment Maintenance 4. Equipment engineering changes 5. Equipment Disposition |
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What is the process of acquiring hardware software, or services?
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Acquisition
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What is the process of taking a requirement and funds and turning them into a legal contract?
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Procurement
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What is the dollar range for Simplified Acquisitions?
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Up to $100,000
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What is the dollar range for Non-Major Acquisitions?
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$100,000 to $5 million
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What is the dollar range for Major Aquistions?
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Over $50 million or under $50 million, but require management attention (normally between $5-$50 million)
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What Fund code is used for Normal and ordinary operating costs for each OPFAC unit?
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AFC-30
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What Fund code is used for Ground and ship-based electronic equipment?
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AFC-42
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Whenever a change extends beyond one platform, what must be considered?
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standardization
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What is DD-1577-2?
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Unserviceable (repairable) tag
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What is DD-1348-1?
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A BC1, or preprinted form that was packed with the serviceable item when it was shipped from the SFLC.
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What is CG-5236?
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Serviceable/Unserviceable material tag
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Mandatory turn-in items are considered overdue if not received at the SFLC within ____ days from the date the item was shipped by the SFLC.
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45
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What are the 3 maintenance levels?
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Organizational
Intermediate Depot |
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When will units develop and use Locally Planned Maintenance Systems (LPMS)?
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only if CGPMS and NPMS are not available
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What is CG-5451
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Feedback report
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What is CG-5454
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CG Equipment History
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Safety Related FBRs are treated very seriously. An FBR involving safety of personnel or damage to equipment is considered ___________.
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URGENT
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What is ONAV 4790/7B
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Navy Feedback report
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Who has the authority to approve Locally planned maintenance system (LPMS)?
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SMEF
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If the 2M/MTR field service engineer does not identify a site capable of performing high quality testing and repair when is the site re-scheduled for inspection?
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Within 8 months
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2M/MTR site certification renewal is performed how often?
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Every 18 months, or up to 24 to facilitate scheduling
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What MTR test is the first choice for screening?
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Gold disk test routine
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How do you clean metal screen filters?
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Warm soapy water
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What do you do with paper or fiberglass filters when they become dirty?
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Replace
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Aside from actual damage what is the most common fault in antenna systems?
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Low resistance to ground.
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When is top side bonding on metallic hull surface ships required?
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When there is there are six or more high frequency (HF) transmitters, and/or bonding is specifically required for personnel safety
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What is MIL-STD-1310
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Shipboard Bonding, Grounding, and Other Techniques for Electromagnetic Compatibility and Safety
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What is the typical line pressure for pressure-type coaxial cables?
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3-5 lbs
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When should radar antennas be removed?
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Only while the vessel is moored.
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What is the type of transmission line normally used with radar?
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Wave-guide
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How thick must the Teflon Moisture Barrier for a Wave-guide be?
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10 mil
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What is the test interval for antennae or transmission lines at a shore unit?
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quarterly
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What is the test interval for antennae or transmission lines at an afloat unit?
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Monthly and at the end of an extended period at sea
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VHF/UHF Antenna and Transmission Line Testing Method?
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Megging is not practical, refer to MPC
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Wave Guide Testing Method?
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VSWR
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Wire antennae test method?
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Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR)
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What is the form number for the Resistance Test Record Card?
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NAVSHIP 531
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How many volts does the megger generally generate?
|
500 volts D.C.
|
|
|
A resistance of ___ megohms or less indicates an immediate and urgent need to find and correct the cause of the problem.
|
5
|
|
|
True or False: Re-lubricating sealed bearings is not recommended.
|
True
|
|
|
What soldering tip produces the best overall results?
|
Unplated copper tip
|
|
|
At what temperature does solder melt?
|
Solder melts between 361° F and 576° F
|
|
|
If a solder joint is moved before it is solid what does this create?
|
A cold connection
|
|
|
When rescuing equipment from salt water immersion what is the potassium dichromate solution/ warm water ratio?
|
½ ounce potassium dichromate solution to every 10 gallons of water
|
|
|
How long should equipment be soaked in the potassium dichromate/water solution when rescuing it from salt water immersion?
|
A minimum of 4 hours
|
|
|
Who can authorize organizational level repair of EAs coded as depot level repair?
|
The CO
|
|
|
Accumulated moisture in whip antennae will cause damage to the antenna when freezing occurs. What should you do to avoid this problem?
|
drill a 1/8" hole in the base of each antenna
|
|
|
What temperature range is considered moderately cold?
|
Down to -35 degrees
|
|
|
What temperature range is considered extremely cold?
|
Less than -35 degrees
|
|
|
What should you do to prevent ice buildup on antennae and wave-guides?
|
coat the surfaces with light oil or suitable silicone compound
|
|
|
At what temperature do batteries with a gravity of 1300 freeze?
|
-90 degrees F
|
|
|
What Type of field change furnishes a field change parts kit (which is assigned an Activity Control number and includes documentation parts and special tools) required to complete a change?
|
Type 1 field change
|
|
|
What type of field change furnishes documentation only?
|
Type 2 field change
|
|
|
What Type of field change furnishes documentation and some of the parts or special tools needed in a field change parts kit?
|
Type 3 field change
|
|
|
What type of field change implements changes to technical documentation only and requires no alterations to the equipment.
|
Type 4 field change
|
|
|
What form does the activity/unit that receives the installed field change submit to SFLC?
|
The OPNAV 4790/CK Configuration Change form
|
|
|
What is a procedure not formerly documented that is useful in servicing electronic equipment?
|
Maintenance hint
|
|
|
For NTNO field changes that are initiated by the Navy are consecutively numbered beginning with what number?
|
1
|
|
|
For NTNO field changes that are initiated by the CG are consecutively numbered beginning with what number?
|
91
|
|
|
If relatively minor mistakes have been made in the Field Change Bulletin what is issued to correct these errors and distributed it to all units that received the related field change?
|
An Errata Sheet
|
|
|
After completing a field change what is affixed to the equipment?
|
Field Change Accomplishment Plate
|
|
|
What are additions or modifications that affect the functional and/or physical characteristics (that is the configuration) of platforms equipment systems or software?
|
Engineering Change
|
|
|
Who can submit an Engineering Change Request (ECR)?
|
Field unit or area/district staff
|
|
|
What are the 4 phases of the Engineering Change process?
|
Phase 1: Concept Approval
Phase 2: Validation Phase 3: Development Phase 4: Deployment |
|
|
What are the 2 categories of Engineering Changes?
|
platform engineering change
system engineering change |
|
|
Engineering changes required to urgently correct conditions that impair the service characteristics of a cutter or safety and health of personnel is what Priority Classification of proposed Engineering Changes?
|
Class A
|
|
|
Engineering changes required to improve the
service characteristics of a cutter health and comfort of personnel or efficiency and economy of operating and maintaining the cutter is what Priority Classification of proposed Engineering Changes? |
Class B
|
|
|
Engineering changes requested for planned future modifications that are impossible or undesirable to complete quickly on all vessels of the same class
are contingent upon Commandant funding or the need to renew a specific item and will not impact operational ability if delayed is what Priority Classification of proposed Engineering Changes? |
Class C
|
|
|
What is CGHQ-3379
|
Engineering Change Approval Form
|
|
|
Test equipment that measures or generates a range of parameters of electronic functions common to two or more equipment or generates a range of parameters or electronic functions common to two or more equipment or systems of basically different design is what type of test equipment?
|
General Purpose Electronic Test Equipment (GPETE)
|
|
|
Test equipment for use with a specific equipment or system excluding medical equipment is what type of test equipment?
|
Specific Electronic Test Equipment (SPETE)
|
|
|
What is test equipment used solely to calibrate GPETE or SPETE?
|
Calibration Test Equipment
|
|
|
What is the name given to Test Equipment Index to group different models of GPETE that perform the same function?
|
Sub Category (SCAT) codes
|
|
|
A three-character code used to identify the order of preference for different test equipment models within a SCAT code on the Test Equipment Index.
|
Priority code
|
|
|
Who is the authorized agent for the acquisition of replacement electronic test equipment?
|
Maintenance and Logistics Commands (MLCs)
|
|
|
True or False it is ok to use out of calibration test equipment?
|
False
Out of calibration test equipment must be tagged as Out-of-Commission (OOC) and must not be used |
|
|
CG-5451
|
Feedback reports
|
|
|
CG-2588
|
ADF calibration chart
|
|
|
CG 5223
|
Short term training request
|
|
|
CG 5682
|
Engineering Change Request
|
|
|
What is a Sergeant First Class in the Army?
|
E-7
|
|
|
What is an E-5 in the Air Force?
|
Staff Sergeant
|
|
|
Which grounding subsystem is used for over 300Khz?
|
Multi-point ground configuration
|
|
|
Which CASREP category exists when a deficiency exists in mission-essential equipment which causes a major degradation but not the loss of a primary mission?
|
Cat. III
|
|
|
When was the Mexican War fought?
|
1846-48
|
|
|
Non-warranted cardholders may not exceed how much for purchase for service?
|
$2500
|
|
|
Non-warranted cardholders may not exceed how much for purchase for supplies?
|
$3000
|
|
|
Electrical connectors shall be weatherproofed within how many hours of assembly?
|
24
|
|
|
Which grounding subsystem is used for under 300khz?
|
Single point ground configuration
|
|
|
Written quotes must be obtained for service contracts over how much?
|
$2500
|
|
|
What is the lead absorption of a child?
|
85-95%
|
|
|
What is the limit on micro-purchases for construction?
|
$2000
|
|
|
How long does it take to charge a Nickel cadmium (NiCad) battery?
|
14-16 hours
|
|
|
How do you charge Nickel cadmium (NiCad) batteries?
|
Only in series, never parallel
|
|
|
How many days does a unit have until a re-inspection for major discrepancies to verify compliance with policy?
|
90 days
|
|
|
What funds may be used for normal and ordinary operation and maintenance support of NTNO ordnance equipment?
|
AFC-77
|
|
|
What alterations are approved to NTNO ordnance equipment?
|
ORDALTs
|
|
|
How many days from conducting a structural or operational test fire does a unit have a report via memo to the cognizant Operational Commander?
|
30 days
|
|
|
How many days does a unit have to conduct an operational test fire following the installation or modification of ordnance equipment?
|
90 days
|
|
|
How much lead does an adult absorb?
|
50-60%
|
|
|
What is the periodicity for an Ordnance Technical Inspection?
|
18 months
|
|
|
How many days does a unit have to submit a statement indicating the status and actions taken to correct the noted deficiencies to ordnance equipment?
|
30 days
|
|
|
What is the non-CG frequency range of SHF?
|
3 GHz – 30 GHz
|
|
|
What is the non-CG frequency range of UHF?
|
300MHz-3GHz
|
|
|
What is the non-CG frequency range of VHF?
|
30MHz-300MHz
|
|
|
When a worker is exposed to a power density limit two times higher than the limit the worker must be away from the field for how many minutes before or after exposure?
|
3 minutes
|
|
|
When a worker is exposed to a power density limit three times higher than the limit the worker must be away from the field for how many minutes before or after exposure?
|
4 minutes
|
|
|
What is the internationally designated frequency for NAVTEX?
|
518khz
|
|
|
A “right to know” station at a unit contains what?
|
MSDS
|
|
|
An initial CASREP must be submitted within what time frame after the discovery of an equipment or system deficiency?
|
24 hours
|
|
|
A CASCOR must be submitted within what time frame of the issue being corrected?
|
24 hours
|
|
|
A CASCAN must be sent out within how many hours after a unit discovers that it can restore the equipment or system?
|
48 hours
|
|
|
A CASREP Update must be sent within how many hours after a need for a change is identified?
|
24 hours
|
|
|
How many CASREP types are there?
|
4
Initial Update Cancel Correct |
|
|
What is a CASREP?
A deficiency exists in mission essential equipment which causes a minor degradation in a primary mission or a major degradation or a total loss of a secondary mission. |
Cat 2
|
|
|
What CASREP?
Deficiency exists in mission essential equipment which causes a major degradation but not the loss of primary mission. |
Cat 3
|
|
|
What CASREP?
Deficiency exists in mission essential equipment that causes a loss of at least one primary mission. |
Cat 4
|
|
|
What effect tends to increase the AC resistance of a conductor to a value greater than that due to simple skin effect?
|
Proximity effect
|
|
|
What is the range for shock that creates muscular inhibition from an AC circuit?
|
21-40mA
|
|
|
What is the range for shock that creates muscular inhibition from a DC circuit?
|
80-160 mA
|
|
|
A shock above how many amps can cause the muscles of the chest to contract and breathing to stop?
|
18 mA
|
|
|
At fixed C-E facilities the earth electrode subsystem should exhibit a resistance to earth of how many ohms or less?
|
10 ohms
|
|
|
The resistance to earth of the earth electrode subsystem should not exceed how many ohms at fixed permanent facilities?
|
10 ohms
|
|
|
Ground rods shall be made of what type of material?
|
Copper Clad Steel
|
|
|
All bonds for ground conductors whose primary function is to provide a path for power control or signal currents and lightning protection shall have a maximum DC resistance of how many ohms?
|
1 milliohm, .001 ohms
|
|
|
In how many days must a mandatory turn in item be turned into SFLC?
|
45
|
|
|
Units are given how many days to respond to a message from SFLC about an overdue mandatory turn in item?
|
30
|
|
|
True or False:
Where procedures or plans require the use of a locking device during normal operations the use of tags is not required. |
True
|
|
|
A yellow tag providing temporary special instructions or to indicate unusual caution must be exercised to operate equipment.
|
Caution Tag
|
|
|
A red tag that prohibits operation of equipment that could jeopardize safety of personnel or endanger equipment.
|
Danger Tag
|
|
|
For how long are inactive log/record sheets kept?
|
6 months
|
|
|
What determines how many TAG-OUT logs a cutter has?
|
The size of the cutter
|
|
|
If only one tag-out log is required who maintains it?
|
The Engineering Department
|
|
|
Where is the Operations Department Tag-Out log kept?
|
On the bridge or other location designated by the CO.
|
|
|
Where is the Engineering Department Tag-Out log kept?
|
Engineering Main Control or other location designated by the CO.
|
|
|
To differentiate between the Operations and Engineering Department tag out logs what prefix letters are used?
|
“O” and “E”
|
|
|
Who prepares the Danger/Caution tag-out index and record of audits sheet Danger/Caution tag-out record sheet the tags and sign the tags?
|
The Person requesting the tag-out
|
|
|
Who must review the Tags DANGER/CAUTION Tag-Out Record Sheet and DANGER/CAUTION Tag-Out Index and Record of Audits Sheet entries for completeness accuracy and legibility and sign the Tag-out record sheet and tags?
|
The Authorizing Officer
|
|
|
What happens after danger/caution tags are initialed affixed?
|
A second person will independently verify that the system or equipment is in the position or condition indicated by the tag. Then the person shall sign the tag and initial the Record Sheet.
|
|
|
Who may remove Danger/Caution tags?
|
Only the person attaching the tags, or in rare instances, the CO may grant the Operations Officer or Engineering Officer permission to clear the tags.
|
|
|
After the Danger/Caution tags have been removed who are they given to and what does he/she do with them?
|
They are given to the Authorizing Officer, who destroys the tags and files the Tag-out record sheet in the inactive section of the tag-out log.
|
|
|
During clearance of the danger/caution tags a missing tag requires what?
|
The Authorizing Officer to verify the condition of the system/equipment before use.
|
|
|
How often are checks and audits of all tag-outs conducted?
|
Every two weeks
|
|
|
When does the tag numbering system start over for the tag-out system?
|
On 01 OCT
|
|
|
What number does the first tag-out for a fiscal year begin with?
|
The department prefix followed by 001: O or E – 001
|
|
|
When are laminated Danger tags authorized?
|
For designated repeated PMS maintenance actions
|
|
|
How often are Department PMS tag-out tags inventoried?
|
Daily by the Department Head by serial number verification.
|
|
|
Who is responsible for the establishment administration and direction of an inspection and maintenance program for the towers?
|
Commanding Officers of Civil Engineering Units
CEU’s |
|
|
A safety helmet is required to be worn by any person within the tower drop zone. What is the tower drop zone?
|
An area whose radius is 1/2 the height of the tower and centered on the tower axis
|
|
|
When climbing to a height of ____ft or less a safety observer is required on the ground.
|
150
|
|
|
When climbing towers greater than ____ft in height the safety observer shall join the primary climber on the tower and stay within _____ft of the primary climber at all times.
|
150, 150
|
|
|
Who has the authority to administer the Tower Climber Certification program for all units within its area of responsibility (AOR).
|
The Servicing CEU
|
|
|
All climber connecting hardware must have a minimum tensile strength of _____pounds and shall be proof tested to a minimum of ______pounds.
|
5000 – tensile strength
3600 – tested |
|
|
Generally the working load limit for a full body harness is _____ pounds.
|
310
|
|
|
What is used to positively ground a tower?
|
A deadman stick
|
|
|
When climbing or descending a tower ____lead on the climb _____ lead on the descent.
|
Legs lead on the climb
Arms lead on the descent |
|
|
NDGPS and DGPS shall not be climbed under any circumstances while energized except when?
|
Never
|
|
|
How often do you visually check each anchor and the tower for abnormal conditions and alignment?
|
Monthly
|
|
|
_______________ is the Commandant supported process used to identify analyze and develop appropriate solutions for organizational and individual performance problems.
|
Human Performance Technology (HPT)
|
|
|
Units with ____or fewer members are not required to have a Unit Training Board as these responsibilities shall be met by the unit training officer.
|
Ten
|
|
|
Ground rods should be made of what material?
|
Copper Clad Steel
|
|
|
Ground rods should be a minimum of what length and thickness?
|
10FT and ¾ in diameter
|
|
|
The resistance to earth of the earth electrode subsystem shall be measured only by what technique?
|
The fall of potential technique
|
|
|
The grounding conductor or green wire shall be identified by one of what three ways?
|
Green, green with yellow stripes or bare wire with green tape
|
|
|
The DC resistance of copper-clad steel down conductors on structures 75 FT or less in height solid wires or stranded cables shall not be greater than how many ohms per how many feet?
|
0.176 ohms per 1000ft
|
|
|
The DC resistance of copper-clad steel down conductors on structures 75 FT or greater in height solid wires or stranded cables shall not be greater than how many ohms per how many feet?
|
0.088 ohms per 1000FT
|
|
|
The size of wires in copper-clad stranded cable shall not be less than what AWG?
|
14 AWG
|
|
|
Down conductor bends shall be gradual and not have a radius less than?
|
8 in
|
|
|
The angle of any down conductor bend shall not be less than?
|
90 degrees
|
|
|
The interval between down conductors around the perimeter shall not be less than ____ or greater than ____?
|
50FT, 100FT
|
|
|
All bonds between elements of the lightning protection subsystems shall be made by what?
|
Welding, Brazing or UL approved high compression clamping devices
|
|
|
All waveguides to antennas shall be grounded at what three points?
|
Near the antenna, at the vertical or horizontal transition near the base of the tower and at the waveguide entry port
|
|
|
Waveguides shall be grounded with solid copper strap or copper wire at least equal to what AWG wire?
|
6 AWG
|
|
|
Under dry conditions a corrosion preventive or sealant shall be applied within how many hours of assembly of the bond materials?
|
24 hours
|
|
|
Under high humidity conditions sealing of the bond shall be accomplished within how many hours of joining?
|
1 hour
|
|
|
All bonds for ground conductors whose primary function is to provide a path for power control or signal currents and lightning protection shall have a minimum DC resistance of how many ohms?
|
.001 ohm (1 milliohm)
|
|
|
GFCI circuits should be installed on what type of receptacles at C-E Facilities?
|
120Volt single phase 15 and 20 amp receptacles
|
|
|
When alternating current tends to concentrate near the surface of the conductor this is called what?
|
Skin effect
|
|
|
What frequency range is a Single-point Ground best used for?
|
0-30kHz and up to 300kHz
|
|
|
What frequency range is a Multi-point Ground best used for?
|
30-300kHz and above
|
|
|
A bonding resistance of how many ohms is considered to indicate that a high quality junction has been achieved?
|
1 milliohm
|
|
|
In terms of electrical performance what is the ideal method of bonding?
|
Welding
|
|
|
An effective welding technique for many bonding applications is what type of process?
|
Exothermic process
|
|
|
The “perception current” usually lies between how many amps?
|
0 and 1 milliamps
|
|
|
Shock currents above how many amps can cause the muscles of the chest to contract and breathing to stop?
|
18 milliamps and above
|
|
|
The reaction current is how many amps?
|
1-4 milliamps
|
|
|
The “let go current” varies between how many amps?
|
4-21 milliamps
|
|
|
What are the three classifications of Bonds?
|
Class A, B, C
|
|
|
What is a Class A bond?
|
Welding or brazing
|
|
|
What is a Class B bond?
|
Bolting or clamping
|
|
|
What is a Class C bond?
|
Bridging with metallic bond strap
|
|
|
How many types of bond straps are there?
|
5
|
|
|
what does COTS stand for?
|
Commercial off the Shelf
|
|
|
What class bond is the only one used for ships ground plane?
|
Class A bond
|
|
|
Class B or C bond is used for what?
|
Electrical safety, equipment operation, EMI mitigation, or EMP effects control
|
|
|
A reading of how many ohms (dc resistance) or less shall be achieved between an equipment enclosure and an adjacent structural ground potential point?
|
.1 ohm
|
|
|
Body resistance may possibly as low as ____
ohms from temple to temple if the skin is broken. |
100 ohms
|
|
|
For 60 hertz of AC the “let go” current for me is ____ amperes and for women it is _____ amperes.
|
.009, .006
For DC it is .062 for men and .041 for women |
|
|
Since capacitors ideally have an infinite impedance to ______ current their presence cannot be detected by a megger or insulation Resistance test.
|
DC
|
|
|
Maintenance Requirement Cards refers to Navy or Coast Guard?
|
Navy
|
|
|
If it is necessary to work on energized circuits such work shall be performed only with the specific permission of whom?
|
Commanding Officer
|
|
|
Almost all modern electronic
equipments are provided with various built-in safety devices (such as interlock switches) to prevent technical and maintenance personnel from accidently coming into contact with electrical potentials in excess of ____ volts RMS or DC. |
70
|
|
|
When cleaning electronic parts
|
DO NOT USE STEEL WOOL OR EMERY
|
|
|
Shipboard electrical distribution
power sources synchro and resolver power sources, and any other alternating current power source originating from the ship’s generators are “ungrounded” or grounded. |
ungrounded
|
|
|
Electrical measurements of such “floating” or “above ground” power sources require that both test leads of the test instrument be What?
|
isolated from ground
|
|
|
All circuits over _____ volts shall be grounded for protection of personnel engaged in repair work.
|
750
|
|
|
Whip antennas shall be _______ before any maintenance is performed on them.
|
grounded
|
|
|
Portable cable assemblies used with
portable electronic test equipment shall be how long? |
Eight feet
|
|
|
Floor matting (currently specified in Military Specification ____________) will serve as a safety measure around electric and electronic equipments where electrical potentials up to but not exceeding _____ volts may be encountered.
|
MIL-M-15562 3000
|
|
|
Bypass devices are sometimes used with
interlocks providing that the potentials are not in excess of ______ volts RMS or DC. |
500
|
|
|
High voltage and shock hazard warning
signs shall be installed on or in the vicinity of equipments or accessories having exposed conductors at potentials of _____ volts |
30
|
|
|
Compartments or walk-in enclosures
Containing equipment with exposed conductors presenting shock hazards in excess of ____ volts RMS or DC shall have a “Danger High Voltage” sign posted conspicuously within each entrance. |
500
|
|
|
What is released when lead acid batteries are charged?
|
Hydrogen gas
|
|
|
Applications for Class “C” School training shall be submitted via ___________.
|
Electronic Training Request (ETR)
|
|
|
What does ACMS stand for?
|
Aviation Computerized Management Systems
|
|
|
What does VTS stand for?
|
Vessel Traffic Service
|
|
|
DGPS is dependent on the overall operation of what?
|
GPS
|
|
|
DGPS uses what frequency to broadcast its signal?
|
Medium frequency
|
|
|
The GPS employs approximately how many satellites in very high polar orbits?
|
26
|
|
|
Metal Jewelry and other similar metal items are not allowed to be worn within what distance of exposed energized circuits?
|
4ft
|
|
|
What manual has information regarding the Equipment Tag Out Procedures?
|
COMDTINST 9077.1
|
|
|
Electrically insulated shoes must be worn when working on live electrical circuits of how many volts or more?
|
30 Volts
|
|
|
What does NE-TIMS stand for?
|
Naval Engineering Technical Information
|
|
|
What does NE-TIMS provide?
|
Information for engineering technical data drawings, tech pubs and MPC’s
|
|
|
What form is used to report any configuration change of Navy owned equipment in their custody to the SFLC?
|
OPNAV 4790/CK
|
|
|
NTNO DLR equipment is returned through what program?
|
ATAC Advance Traceability and Control
|
|
|
What form is used for TCTO?
|
CG-22
|
|
|
What can a CG-22 form be used for?
|
Changes to Tech Mans, publications, MPC’s or other technical data under the purview of the SBPL
|
|
|
The facility ground system consists of what four electrically connected subsystems?
|
Earth electrode, Fault protection, Lightning protection, Signal reference
|
|
|
The resistance to earth of the earth electrode subsystem should not exceed how many ohms at fixed permanent facilities?
|
10 ohms
|
|
|
The thickness of the copper jacket on a ground rod shall not be less than?
|
.012 in
|
