2010 Released Qs And Ans15

Front 1

Bioavailability of orally administered
drugs may be influenced by
A. formulation of the drug.
B. gastrointestinal perfusion.
C. pH of the gastrointestinal tract.
D. presence of other substances in the
gastrointestinal tract

Back 1

E. All of the above.

Front 2

In drug synergism
A. a drug acts beneficially in
conjunction with another drug.
B. a drug accumulates in the body at a
faster rate than it is destroyed or
removed.
C. a drug is concentrated in the kidneys.
D. a drug produces active metabolites.
E. the concentration of the drug
increases with time.

Back 2

A. a drug acts beneficially in
conjunction with another drug.

Front 3

Tetracyclines have all of the following
properties EXCEPT
A. absorption is impaired when taken
with milk.
B. they predispose patients to candidial
infection.
C. they form stable complex with the
developing tooth matrix.
D. they may be substituted for
amoxicillin in patients that require
coverage to prevent subacute
bacterial endocarditis.

Back 3

D. they may be substituted for
amoxicillin in patients that require
coverage to prevent subacute
bacterial endocarditis.

Front 4

Amphetamines
1. increase mental alertness and decrease
fatigue.
2. are analeptics.
3. have no effect on psychomotor
activity.
4. are useful in controlling arrhythmias

Back 4

1. increase mental alertness and decrease
fatigue.
3. have no effect on psychomotor
activity.

Front 5

Properties of glutaraldehyde include
1. rapid formation of cross linkages
which limit penetration of pulp tissue.
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
3. minimal effectiveness against viruses
and spores.
4. excellent disinfection against oral
bacteria.

Back 5

1. rapid formation of cross linkages
which limit penetration of pulp tissue
2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.
4. excellent disinfection against oral
bacteria.

Front 6

Which of the following has/have
analgesic, antipyretic and antiinflammatory
effects?
A. Acetominophen.
B. Acetylsalicylic acid.
C. Bradykinin.
D. A. and B.
E. None of the above.

Back 6

B. Acetylsalicylic acid.

Front 7

Propoxyphene (Darvon) has become an
important drug of abuse because
A. it is a potent analgesic with a
euphoriant activity equal to
morphine.
B. in combination with alcohol its
effects are greatly intensified.
C. it cannot be detected in the
bloodstream.
D. All of the above.

Back 7

B. in combination with alcohol its
effects are greatly intensified.

Front 8

Which statement(s) is/are true about
diazepam?
1. It improves performance rating of fine
motor skills.
2. It is more toxic when taken with ethyl
alcohol.
3. It is available without prescription in
Canada.
4. It produces a typical dependence
syndrome.

Back 8

2. It is more toxic when taken with ethyl
alcohol
4. It produces a typical dependence
syndrome.

Front 9

Which of the following is most often
associated with a non-vital tooth?
A. Periapical cyst.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cementoma.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.

Back 9

A. Periapical cyst.

Front 10

The depth of penetration of any object by
x-rays is determined by
1. milliamperage.
2. density of the object.
3. exposure time.
4. kilovoltage.

Back 10

2. density of the object.
4. kilovoltage.

Front 11

The amount of tissue damage following
irradiation depends on
A. radiation type.
B. radiation dose.
C. radiation dose rate.
D. volume of tissue irradiated.
E. All of the above.

Back 11

E. All of the above.

Front 12

Which of the following will increase
image sharpness on radiographs?
A. Small focal spot.
B. Long source-film distance.
C. Short object-film distance.
D. All of the above.

Back 12

D. All of the above.

Front 13

Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray
beam to
A. increase contrast.
B. reduce film density.
C. reduce exposure time.
D. reduce patient radiation dose.

Back 13

D. reduce patient radiation dose.

Front 14

The amount of radiation to a patient can be
reduced by
1. using a high speed film.
2. using an aluminum filter.
3. using low kVp.
4. increasing target-film distance.
5. decreasing target-film distance.

Back 14

1. using a high speed film.
2. using an aluminum filter.
4. increasing target-film distance.

Front 15

If an alginate impression must be stored
for a few minutes before the cast is
poured, it should be placed in
A. water.
B. 100% relative humidity.
C. A 1% aqueous calcium sulfate
solution.
D. None of the above.

Back 15

B. 100% relative humidity.

Front 16

Which of the following modifications to
the standard procedure for mixing gypsum
products will increase the compressive
strength of the set material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by
a small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.

Back 16

B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by
a small amount.

Front 17

Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout
the implanted material.

Back 17

E. All of the above.

Front 18

World epidemiological data indicates that
periodontal disease is the most likely
cause of tooth loss in the following age
group:
A. 10 - 20 years.
B. 20 - 30 years.
C. 30 - 50 years.
D. 65 - 75 years.
E. over 75 years.

Back 18

D. 65 - 75 years

Front 19

Prognosis for a patient with oral squamous
cell carcinoma depends upon which of the
following factors?
1. Size of the tumor.
2. Location of the tumor.
3. Lymph node involvement.
4. Symptoms.

Back 19

E. All of the above.

Front 20

Desquamative gingivitis is seen in
1. pemphigus vulgaris.
2. mucous membrane pemphigoid.
3. erosive lichen planus.
4. erythema multiforme.

Back 20

E. All of the above.

Front 21

A characteristic sign of aggressive
periodontitis in an adolescent (juvenile
periodontitis) is
A. marginal gingivitis.
B. painful, burning gingivae.
C. hyperplastic gingivitis.
D. drifting of the teeth.

Back 21

D. drifting of the teeth.

Front 22

Diagnosis of periodontitis is clinically
demonstrated by
A. bleeding from the base of the
periodontal pocket.
B. loss of 2mm or more of the
periodontal attachment.
C. exudate from the periodontal pocket.
D. All of the above.

Back 22

D. All of the above.

Front 23

To ensure maximum marginal strength for
an amalgam restoration the cavosurface
angle should
A. approach 45 degrees.
B. approach 90 degrees.
C. be bevelled.
D. be chamfered.

Back 23

B. approach 90 degrees

Front 24

For an acid-etched Class III composite
resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity
can be bevelled to
1. eliminate the need for internal
retention.
2. improve convenience form.
3. aid in finishing.
4. increase the surface area for etching.

Back 24

4. increase the surface area for etching.

Front 25

Whenever possible, the margins of a
restoration should be placed
1. subgingivally.
2. supragingivally.
3. on cementum.
4. on enamel.

Back 25

2. supragingivally.
4. on enamel.

Front 26

A bevel is CONTRAINDICATED on the
cavosurface margins of a Class I amalgam
cavity preparation because
A. this type of margin would tend to
leak.
B. as the tooth undergoes natural
attrition the bevel would be worn
away.
C. a thin flange of the amalgam
restorative material is prone to
fracture.
D. the restoration is more difficult to
polish.

Back 26

C. a thin flange of the amalgam
restorative material is prone to
fracture.

Front 27

Planing the enamel at the gingival
cavosurface of a Class II amalgam
preparation on a permanent tooth
A. should result in a long bevel.
B. is contraindicated because of the low
edge strength of amalgam.
C. is unnecessary since the tooth
structure in this area is strong.
D. should remove unsupported enamel
which may fracture.
E. should result in a sharp
gingivoproximal line angle.

Back 27

D. should remove unsupported enamel
which may fracture.

Front 28

The area of the tooth that is most sensitive
during cavity preparation is
A. dentin.
B. cementum.
C. cementoenamel junction.
D. dentinoenamel junction.

Back 28

D. dentinoenamel junction.

Front 29

A patient complains of tooth pain which is
sharp and stabbing when chewing sweet or
cold foods. Pain is relieved by warmth and
direct pressure. Your diagnosis is
A. a carious lesion with pulpal
inflammation.
B. a carious lesion with pulp
degeneration.
C. traumatic occlusion.
D. a cracked tooth.

Back 29

D. a cracked tooth.

Front 30

Which of the following is/are (a) useful
guide(s) in determining a patient’s
occlusal vertical dimension?
1. Appearance.
2. Phonetics.
3. Observation of the rest position.
4. Pre-extraction profile records.

Back 30

E. All of the above.

Front 31

The retention form of a full crown
preparation can be improved by
1. reducing its taper.
2. increasing its length.
3. utilizing grooves or boxes.
4. polishing the preparation.

Back 31

1. reducing its taper.
2. increasing its length.
3. utilizing grooves or boxes.

Front 32

In partial denture design, the major
connector should
A. rigidly connect the bilateral
components.
B. act as a stress-breaker.
C. not interfere with lateral forces.
D. dissipate vertical forces.

Back 32

A. rigidly connect the bilateral
components.

Front 33

In order to fulfill all of its roles, a
provisional crown must restore the
1. proximal contacts.
2. axial contours of the tooth.
3. occlusal function.
4. esthetics.

Back 33

E. All of the above.

Front 34

Which of the following will cause
separation of porcelain from metal in the
porcelain fused to metal bridge?
A. Failure to use equal amounts of metal
and porcelain.
B. Occlusal contacts on pocelain
C. Contamination of metal before the
application of porcelain.
D. More than 60 percent vertical
overlap of anterior teeth.

Back 34

C. Contamination of metal before the
application of porcelain.

Front 35

For prevention of cross infection, which of
the following impression materials CAN
be treated with a disinfecting spray
solution?
A. Irreversible hydrocolloid (alginate).
B. Polyether.
C. Polysulfide.
D. Polysiloxane.
E. All of the above.

Back 35

E. All of the above.

Front 36

A patient with complete dentures
complains of clicking. The most common
causes are
A. reduced vertical dimension and
improperly balanced occlusion.
B. excessive vertical dimension and
poor retention.
C. use of too large a posterior tooth and
too little horizontal overlap.
D. improper relation of teeth to the ridge
and excessive anterior vertical
overlap.

Back 36

B. excessive vertical dimension and
poor retention.

Front 37

In patients wearing complete dentures, the
most frequent cause of tooth contact
(clicking) during speaking is
A. nervous tension.
B. incorrect centric relation position.
C. excessive occlusal vertical
dimension.
D. lack of vertical overlap.
E. unbalanced occlusion.

Back 37

C. excessive occlusal vertical
dimension.

Front 38

The function of the compensating curve is
A. to help provide a balanced occlusion
in complete dentures when the
mandible is protruded.
B. to aid in establishing an incisal guide
plane.
C. the same as the function of the curve
of Spee.
D. None of the above.

Back 38

A. to help provide a balanced occlusion
in complete dentures when the
mandible is protruded.

Front 39

The best means of extending the working
time of an irreversible hydrocolloid
impression material is to
A. extend spatulation time.
B. add additional water.
C. use cold water.
D. add a small amount of borax.
E. add potassium sulfate.

Back 39

C. use cold water.

Front 40

Advantages of resin bonded bridges are
1. improved aesthetics compared to
traditional bridges.
2. tooth structure conservation.
3. short chair-side time.
4. economy.

Back 40

2. tooth structure conservation.
3. short chair-side time.
4. economy.

Front 41

The use of complete dentures by older
people most frequently causes
1. denture induced hyperplasia.
2. alveolar ridge resorption.
3. angular cheilitis.
4. stomatitis.
5. leukoplakia.

Back 41

1. denture induced hyperplasia.
2. alveolar ridge resorption.
3. angular cheilitis.
4. stomatitis.

Front 42

Side effects of chemotherapeutic treatment
for malignancy include
A. atrophic thinning of the oral mucosa.
B. ulceration.
C. necrosis.
D. spontaneous bleeding.
E. All of the above.

Back 42

E. All of the above.

Front 43

Prophylactic antibiotic therapy is indicated
for patients with
1. a functional heart murmur.
2. mitral valve prolapse.
3. an osseointegrated dental implant.
4. an organic heart murmur.

Back 43

2. mitral valve prolapse.
4. an organic heart murmur.

Front 44

The surgical procedure indicated for
odontogenic cysts is
A. enucleation.
B. cauterization.
C. incision and drainage.

Back 44

A. enucleation.

Front 45

Insulin reaction is characterized by
1. nausea.
2. tachycardia.
3. sweating.
4. mental confusion

Back 45

E. All of the above.

Front 46

A patient who is four months pregnant
requires an extraction. A radiograph may
A. be taken only if difficulty is
encountered during surgery.
B. be taken.
C. not be taken.
D. be taken by panoramic radiography
only.

Back 46

B. be taken.

Front 47

Periapical infection from a mandibular
second molar may spread by direct
extension to the
1. buccal space.
2. buccal vestibule.
3. sublingual space.
4. submandibular space.

Back 47

E. All of the above.

Front 48

Metronidazole can be used to treat
A. denture stomatitis.
B. recurrent aphthous ulceration.
C. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
(NUG).
D. primary herpetic ulceration.

Back 48

C. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
(NUG).

Front 49

Tetracycline therapy instituted either in the
second trimester or post partum in the
infant is responsible for
A. discoloration of deciduous teeth.
B. discoloration of permanent teeth.
C. minor changes in the hydroxyapatite
of the enamel.

Back 49

A. discoloration of deciduous teeth.
B. discoloration of permanent teeth.

Front 50

In an infection caused by non-penicillinase
producing staphylococcus, the drug of
choice is
A. penicillin V.
B. cephalexin.
C. tetracycline.
D. vancomycin.

Back 50

A. penicillin V.