2010 Released Qs And Ans8

Front 1

The chief mechanism by which the body
metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is
A. oxidation.
B. reduction.
C. hydroxylation and oxidation.
D. sequestration in the body fats.

Back 1

C. hydroxylation and oxidation.

Front 2

When performing a frenoplasty, a minimal
amount of anesthetic solution is used to
prevent
A. distortion of the tissues.
B. sloughing.
C. rebound bleeding.
D. irritation.

Back 2

A. distortion of the tissues.

Front 3

Early anoxia is characterized by
1. cyanosis.
2. bradycardia.
3. tachycardia

Back 3

1. cyanosis.
3. tachycardia

Front 4

In the treatment of an acute anaphylactic
reaction, the first drug that should be
administered is
A. hydroxyzine.
B. epinephrine.
C. hydrocortisone.
D. diphenhydramine

Back 4

B. epinephrine.

Front 5

Bilateral dislocated fractures of the
mandibular condyles result in
1. anterior open bite.
2. anesthesia of the mental nerves.
3. inability to protrude the mandible.
4. inability to bring posterior molars
into contact.

Back 5

1. anterior open bite.
3. inability to protrude the mandible

Front 6

Which of the following is/are
contraindication(s) for a single tooth
extraction in your office?
1. The patient is severely hyperthyroid
and not under treatment.
2. The patient is a well-controlled
diabetic.
3. The tooth is hypermobile in an area
of cavernous hemangioma.
4. The tooth has internal root
resorption.

Back 6

1. The patient is severely hyperthyroid
and not under treatment.
3. The tooth is hypermobile in an area
of cavernous hemangioma.

Front 7

An acute periapical abscess originating
from a mandibular third molar generally
points and drains in the
A. submandibular space.
B. pterygomandibular space.
C. buccal vestibule.
D. buccal space.

Back 7

A. submandibular space.

Front 8

During extraction of a maxillary third
molar, the tuberosity is fractured. The
tooth with the tuberosity remains attached
to the surrounding soft tissue. You should
A. remove both and suture.
B. leave both and stabilize, if possible.
C. remove both, fill the defect with
Gelfoam and suture.
D. reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove
the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in
place and suture.

Back 8

B. leave both and stabilize, if possible.

Front 9

If a patient is allergic to penicillin, the
alternative antibiotic would be
A. ampicillin.
B. aureomycin.
C. erythromycin.
D. declomycin.
E. streptomycin.

Back 9

C. erythromycin.

Front 10

Which of the following lower(s) the body
temperature increased by bacterial
pyrogens?
1. Acetaminophen.
2. Bradykinin.
3. Acetylsalicylic acid.
4. Codeine.

Back 10

1. Acetaminophen.
3. Acetylsalicylic acid.

Front 11

A significant mechanism by which
acetylsalicylic acid produces its analgesic
and anti-inflammatory effect is
A. antagonism of histamine.
B. inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis.
C. local anesthetic effect on pain fibres.
D. release of adrenal steroids from the
adrenal cortex.
E. synaptic inhibition in the dorsal
column.

Back 11

B. inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis.

Front 12

When sutures are used to reposition tissue
over extraction sites, they should be
1. placed over firm bone where
possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue
flaps without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
hemostasis.

Back 12

1. placed over firm bone where
possible.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue
flaps without blanching.

Front 13

Which of the following will allay or
minimize the emotional factors which may
predispose to syncope?
A. Secobarbital.
B. Diazepam.
C. Phenobarbital.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

Back 13

D. All of the above

Front 14

A sedative drug should
A. cause excitement.
B. eliminate all sensation.
C. produce unconsciousness.
D. produce a mild state of central
nervous system depression.

Back 14

D. produce a mild state of central
nervous system depression.

Front 15

Oral flurazepam is superior to oral
diazepam as
A. a sedative.
B. a tranquilizer.
C. a hypnotic.
D. a muscle relaxant.
E. an amnesic.

Back 15

C. a hypnotic.

Front 16

Tranquilizers and hypnotics
A. are depressants of the respiratory
centre.
B. are depressants of the cortex.
C. may cause physical dependency.
D. All of the above.

Back 16

D. All of the above.

Front 17

Which of the following drugs potentiates
the action of sedative drugs?
A. Digitalis.
B. Phenothiazine.
C. Propranolol.
D. Methyldopa.
E. Spironolactone

Back 17

B. Phenothiazine.

Front 18

Nitrous oxide
1. provides good muscle relaxation.
2. is non-explosive and non-flammable.
3. is a potent anesthetic.
4. provides rapid induction and
recovery.

Back 18

2. is non-explosive and non-flammable.
4. provides rapid induction and
recovery.

Front 19

The position of a needle in the lumen of a
vein is confirmed by
A. the color of the blood upon
aspiration.
B. rapidity of filling of the syringe upon
aspiration.
C. pain associated with vessel puncture.
D. None of the above.

Back 19

A. the color of the blood upon
aspiration.

Front 20

What is the maximum number of
cartridges (1.8ml) of a 2 local anesthetic
solution that can be administered without
exceeding a total dose of 300mg?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 10

Back 20

D. 8

Front 21

Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril) is used
to treat
1. hypertension.
2. angina pectoris.
3. atrial fibrillation.
4. ventricular fibrillation.
5. congestive heart failure.

Back 21

1. hypertension.
5. congestive heart failure.

Front 22

Procaine (Novocaine) is an example of a
local anaesthetic which is chemically
classified as an
A. amide.
B. ester.
C. aldehyde.
D. ethamine.
E. aminide.

Back 22

B. ester.

Front 23

Which of the following nerves should be
anesthetized for the removal of a maxillary
first molar?
1. Greater palatine.
2. Naso palatine.
3. Middle superior alveolar.
4. Anterior superior alveolar.
5. Posterior superior alveolar.

Back 23

1. Greater palatine.
3. Middle superior alveolar.
5. Posterior superior alveolar.

Front 24

After an inferior alveolar nerve block
injection, a patient would develop seventh
nerve paralysis if the injection was made
into the
A. internal maxillary artery.
B. retroparotid space.
C. internal pterygoid muscle.
D. retromandibular vein.
E. pterygoid plexus of veins.

Back 24

B. retroparotid space.

Front 25

A 6-year old child presents with a nonvital
mandibular deciduous second molar
which has a draining fistula in the
bifurcation area. Your treatment of choice
is
A. extraction.
B. observation.
C. pulpotomy.
D. direct pulp capping.

Back 25

A. extraction.

Front 26

An 8-year old boy has lost tooth 11. The
lateral incisors have partially erupted. You
would expect that tooth 12 will erupt
A. without encroaching upon the space.
B. encroaching upon the central incisor
space.
C. and the left central incisor will
encroach upon the space.
D. B. and C.

Back 26

B. encroaching upon the central incisor
space.
C. and the left central incisor will
encroach upon the space.

Front 27

The cells responsible for root resorption
are
A. fibroblasts.
B. cementoblasts.
C. osteoblasts.
D. osteoclasts.

Back 27

D. osteoclasts.

Front 28

In primary molars, radiographic bony
changes from an infection are initially
seen
A. at the apices.
B. in the furcation area.
C. at the alveolar crest.
D. at the base of the developing tooth.

Back 28

B. in the furcation area.

Front 29

Localized gingival recession of a
mandibular permanent incisor in an 8 year
old can be caused by
A. vitamin C deficiency.
B. ankyloglossia.
C. localized aggressive (juvenile)
periodontitis.
D. traumatic occlusion.
E. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
(NUG).

Back 29

B. ankyloglossia.

Front 30

After pulpotomy of a permanent central
incisor in an 8-year old child, the most
important clinical criterion/criteria of
success is/are:
1. completion of root formation.
2. retained natural colour of the tooth.
3. secondary dentin bridge formation.
4. formation of pulp stones.

Back 30

1. completion of root formation
3. secondary dentin bridge formation.

Front 31

An ankylosed deciduous molar can cause
A. delayed eruption of the succeeding
premolar.
B. alteration of arch length.
C. difficulty with extraction.
D. All of the above.

Back 31

D. All of the above.

Front 32

The eruption of a permanent central
incisor may be delayed by
A. a supernumerary tooth.
B. dense fibrous tissue.
C. a retained deciduous incisor.
D. All of the above.

Back 32

D. All of the above.

Front 33

To minimize fractures of amalgam
restorations in deciduous teeth, cavity
preparations should have
1. concave pulpal floors.
2. rounded axiopulpal line angles.
3. rounded proximal retention grooves.
4. lateral walls parallel to the external
surface of the tooth.

Back 33

2. rounded axiopulpal line angles.
3. rounded proximal retention grooves.
4. lateral walls parallel to the external
surface of the tooth.

Front 34

Secondary dentin will develop
A. if the teeth become abraded.
B. if cavities develop.
C. following fractures.
D. due to chemical irritation.
E. All of the above.

Back 34

E. All of the above.

Front 35

Under what circumstances would you
consider leaving root tips in the socket of
a primary tooth?
1. No infection in the area.
2. Root tip size less than 2mm.
3. Would not interfere with ensuing
restorative procedures.
4. Would not interfere with development
or eruption of succedaneous teeth.

Back 35

E. All of the above.

Front 36

A radiographic examination of a 10 year
old child reveals retention of deciduous
teeth and presence of many unerupted
supernumerary teeth. This is characteristic
of
A. cleidocranial dysplasia.
B. ectodermal dysplasia.
C. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. congenital hypothyroidism.

Back 36

A. cleidocranial dysplasia.

Front 37

Ankylosed deciduous teeth may be
recognized by their
A. percussion sensitivity.
B. discolouration.
C. crown shape.
D. buccolingual displacement.
E. infra-occlusal position.

Back 37

E. infra-occlusal position.

Front 38

Radiographic examination of a permanent
molar with an acute pulpitis of 24 hour
duration would reveal
A. radiolucency of the bifurcation.
B. normal radiographic appearance.
C. periapical bone rarefaction.
D. altered periodontal ligament space.
E. internal resorption.

Back 38

B. normal radiographic appearance.

Front 39

In cephalometry, the most stable point in a
growing skull is the
A. sella turcica.
B. nasion.
C. Broadbent's point.
D. Bolton point.

Back 39

A. sella turcica.

Front 40

Which of the following patients should be
referred for orthodontic treatment to close
a diastema between maxillary central
incisors?
1. An 8-year old with no abnormal oral
habits.
2. A 14-year old with no abnormal oral
habits.
3. A 3-year old with a 4mm overjet.
4. An 8-year old with a previous thumb
habit.

Back 40

2. A 14-year old with no abnormal oral
habits.
4. An 8-year old with a previous thumb
habit.

Front 41

The radiographic appearance of internal
resorption is
A. radiolucent enlargement of the pulp
cavity.
B. radiolucency around the apex of the
root.
C. radiolucency on the surfaces of the
root.
D. localized radiopacities in the pulp
cavity.
E. radiopacity around the apex of the
root.

Back 41

A. radiolucent enlargement of the pulp
cavity.

Front 42

The most appropriate treatment for a child
with a primary tooth that caused a severe,
throbbing toothache the previous night is
A. analgesics.
B. antibiotic therapy.
C. removal of caries and placement of a
sedative restoration.
D. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide.
E. extraction of the tooth.

Back 42

E. extraction of the tooth.

Front 43

In the examination of the child patient,
normal gingiva is diagnosed on the basis
of
1. contour.
2. stippling.
3. sulcus depth.
4. color of Nasmyth's membrane.
5. tight fitting gingival collar.

Back 43

1. contour.
3. sulcus depth.

Front 44

The intrusion of a permanent central
incisor can cause
1. laceration of the periodontal
membrane.
2. loss of pulp vitality.
3. ankylosis.
4. root resorption.
5. discoloration of the tooth.

Back 44

D. All of the above.

Front 45

Roots of the permanent maxillary central
incisors are completed by what age?
A. 8 years.
B. 10 years.
C. 12 years.
D. Later than 12 years.

Back 45

B. 10 years.

Front 46

The developing permanent tooth
A. lies apically and lingually to primary
teeth in the anterior region.
B. may show deviated eruption times if
the primary tooth is lost prematurely.
C. has a more protrusive path of
eruption in the anterior region.
D. All of the above.

Back 46

D. All of the above.

Front 47

An endomorph is characterized as a person
who
A. is short and fat.
B. is tall and thin.
C. is muscular.
D. matures early.
E. matures late.

Back 47

A. is short and fat.

Front 48

If there is insufficient arch space for a
permanent tooth to erupt, the tooth may
A. cause resorption of the root of
another tooth.
B. erupt out of position.
C. not erupt.
D. All of the above.

Back 48

D. All of the above.

Front 49

Following very early loss of a primary
tooth, the eruption time of the permanent
successor could be
A. unaltered.
B. accelerated.
C. delayed.
D. None of the above.

Back 49

C. delayed.

Front 50

Cleidocranial dysostosis is distinguished
by
A. usually shortened skull.
B. delayed suture closure.
C. persistence of deciduous teeth.
D. clavicles absent or maldeveloped.
E. All of the above.

Back 50

E. All of the above.