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170 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Cell Type - Blood Cell Differentiation
True/False: Myeloblast --> Promyelocyte --> Metamyelocyte --> Myelocyte --> Stab cell --> Neutrophil, Eosinophil or Basophil
False, Metamyelocyte is after myelocyte (Greek tip - 'meta' means after)
A megakaryoblast becomes a ------------- then ----------------
Megakaryocyte then platelet
A reticulocyte is an immature -------------
Monoblasts are progenitors of
What is the progenitor of plasma cells and active T cells?
p. 70
Describe the shape of rbc's
Anucleate, biconcave, large SA:V ratio
What is the rbc's source of energy?
Why purpose does the large SA:V ratio serve in an rbc?
easy gas exchange of O2 and CO2
Define erythrocytosis
Increased number of red cells
Define poikilocytosis
Varying shapes
How is glucose metabolized in an rbc?
90% anaerobic and 10% HMP shunt
What is the lifetime of the rbc?
120 days
Importance of "physiologic chloride shift"?
Membrane contains chloride-bicarbonate antiport which allows rbc to transport CO2 from the periphery to the lungs for elimination
p. 70
Name three types of granulocytes
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
Name two mononuclear cells
lymphocytes and monocytes
Purpose of leukocytes?
Defense against infections
Normal levels of leukocytes?
4.000 - 10,000/ul
p. 70
What % of all leukocytes do basophils comprise?
True/False: Nucleus of basophil is trilobed
False, bilobed
Granules of a basophil are ------------ and stain with -------------- stains
basophilic, basic (wow, tough one)
Granules of a basophil contain
heparin (anticoagulant), histamine (vasodilator), other vasoactive amines and SRS-A
Mast Cell
p. 70
Function of mast cell?
Mediates allergic reactions
Upon degranulation, mast cells release
histamine, heparin, and eosinophil chemotactic factors
Mast cells bind which class of globulin
True/False: Mast cells are the same cell type as basophils
False, they are the same structurally and functionally, but are not the same cell type
Mast cells are involved in which type of hypersensitivity reactions?
Type 1
Which pharmacologic agent is used to prevent mast cell degranulation and what is it used to treat?
Cromolyn sodium/asthma
p. 71
What % of all leukocytes do eosinophils comprise?
The nucleus of an eosinophil is ------------
Function of an eosinophil?
Defend against helminthic and protozoan infections
Eosinophils are highly phagocytic for ---------------
Antigen-antibody complexes
What are the causes of eosinophilia?
Neoplastic, Asthma, Allergic Processes, Collagen Vascular Diseases, Parasites (NAACP = mnemonic)
What substances do eosinophils produce?
histaminase and arylsulfate
p. 71
Function of neutrophil?
Acute inflammatory response cell, phagocytosis
What percentage of WBC's do neutrophils comprise?
Nucleus of a neutrophil is ----------------
Primary granules in a neutrophil are called -------------
Describe primary granules of a neutrophil.
Large, spherical, azurophilic
Primary granules in a neutrophil contain --------------
hydrolytic enzymes, lysozyme, myeloperoxidase and lactoferrin
In what pathologic conditions do you see hypersegmented neutrophils?
B12/folate deficiency
p. 71
Shape of monocyte nucleus
kidney shaped
Cytoplasm of monocyte looks like --------------
"frosted glass"
In the tissues, monocytes differentiate into --------------
Monocytes comprise what percent of all leukocytes?
p. 71
Describe nucleus of lymphocyte
small, round, densely staining
True/False: A lymphocyte has a large amount of dark cytoplasm
False, small amount of pale cytoplasm
What to B lymphocytes produce?
Function of T lymphocytes?
Cellular immune response and regulation of B lymphocytes and macrophages
B Lymphocyte
p. 71
B lymphocytes are part of the -------------- immune response.
Where do B lymphocytes mature?
Bone marrow (B = Bone marrow)
What markers are present on B lymphocytes?
CD19 and CD20
B lymphocytes migrate to
peripheral lymphoid tissue (follicles of lymph nodes, white pulp of spleen, unencapsulated lymphoid tissue)
When B cells encounter antigen, they differentiate into --------- and produce ---------
plasma cells/antibodies
B cells function as antigen presenting cells (APC) via ------------
Plasma Cell
p. 71
Nucleus of plasma cell is ----------- and has a -------------- chromatin distribution
True/False: Plasma cells have abundant RER and well-developed Golgi apparatus
Plasma cell neoplasm
multiple myeloma
Plama cells differentiate from --------- to produce large amounts of ---------- specific to a particular antigen
B cells/antibody
T Lymphocyte
p. 72
Function of T cells?
Mediate cellular immune response
T cells mature in the -------------
What does CD stand for?
Cluster of Differentiation
Name four types of cells that T cells differentiate into?
cytotoxic, helper, suppressor, delayed hypersensitivity
Markers present on T helper cells?
CD3, CD4
Markers present on cytotoxic T cells?
CD3, CD8
Class ----- MHC molecules present antigen to CD--- positive T helper cells
2, 4
Class ----- MHC molecules present antigen to CD--- positive cytotoxic T cells
1, 8
p. 72
Function of macrophages
phagocytize bacteria, cell debris and senescent red cells, and scavenges damaged cells and tissues
Macrophages differentiate from circulating ---------------
Macrophages are activated by
gamma interferon
Macrophages function as APC via ------------
Airway cells
p. 72
Ciliated cells extend to -------------------
respiratory bronchioles
Goblet cells extend to ------------------
terminal bronchioles
Type ----- cells line the alveoli and take up what % of the alveolar surface?
Type 1, 97%
Type ----- cells secrete pulmonary surfactant and take up what % of the alveolar surface?
Type 2, 3%
Pulmonary surfactant is made up of ----------------
What is the purpose of pulmonary surfactant?
Decrease alveolar surface tension
Which type of cells serve as precursors to both type 1 and type 2 cells?
Type 2
In amniotic fluid, what ratio is indicative of fetal lung maturity?
lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio >2.0
Function of ciliated cells?
To sweep mucus secretions out of the lungs toward the mouth
p. 72
Microglia are CNS --------------
Embryonic origin of microglia?
True/False: Microglia are readily seen with Nissl stain
Describe nucleus and cytoplasm of microglia
small irregular nuclei, little cytoplasm
In response to tissue damage, microglia transform into ------------
large, ameboid phagocytic cells
HIV-infected microglia form ----------------------- in the CNS
multinucleated giant cells
p. 72
Function of oligodendroglia?
To myelinate multiple CNS axons
In Nissl stain, oligodendroglia appear as -------------
small nuclei with dark chromatin and relatively little cytoplasm
Oligodendroglia are the predominant type of glial cell in --------- matter
Oligodendroglia are destroyed in --------------------
Multiple sclerosis
Schwann Cells
p. 72
Each Schwann cell functions to myelinate how many PNS axons?
What is the function of Schwann cells?
To promote axonal regeneration
Name an example of a schwannoma
acoustic neuroma
Location of acoustic neuroma commonly associated with what anatomical landmark?
internal acoustic meatus (CN VII and CN VIII)
Gas Exchange Barrier
p. 73
See p. 73 for Gas exchange barrier diagram

p. 73
Fetal landmarks
p. 73
Implantation of blastocyst is present in which week?
The bilaminar disk is formed within which week?
Gastrulation, primitive streak, notochord, neural plate begin to form
Within week 3
Neural tube formed, organogenesis, extremely susceptible to teratogens
Weeks 3-8
Heart begins to beat, Upper and lower limb buds begin to form
Week 4
When do genitalia begin to have male/female characteristics?
Week 10
From day 0 to implantation at end of week 1, name stages of embryogenesis
Fertilization (day 0), zygote (day 2), morula (day 3), blastocyst (day 5), implantation (day 6)
p. 74
Effect on fetus
ACE Inhibitors
Renal damage
Abnormal fetal development, fetal addiction
vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
congenital goiter or hypothyroidism
13-cis-retinoic acid
extremely high risk for birth defects
limb defects ("flipper" limbs)
warfarin, x-rays
multiple anomalies
fetal infections
congenital malformations
Umbilical cord
p. 74
how many umbilical arteries?
what kind of blood do the umbilical arteries carry?
deoxygenated blood from fetus
how many umbilical veins?
what kind of blood is carried by umbilical vein?
supplies oxygenated blood from placenta to the fetus
a single umbilical artery is associated with what anomalies?
congenital and chromosomal
Embryologic derivatives
p. 74
surface ectoderm
adenohypophysis, lens of eye, epithelial linings, epidermis
neurohypophysis, CNS neurons, oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, pineal gland
neural crest
ANS, dorsal root ganglia, melanocytes, chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla, enterochromaffin cells, pia, celiac ganglion, Schwann cells, odontoblasts, parafollicular - C cells of thyroid, laryngeal cartilage
dura connective tissue, muscle, bone, cardiovascular structures, lymphatics, blood urogenital structures, serous linings of body cavities (peritoneal), spleen, adrenal cortex
gut tube epithelium and derivatives (lungs, liver, pancreas, thymus, thyroud, parathyroid)
what induces ectoderm to form neuroectoderm (neural plate)?
what is the postnatal derivative of the notochord?
nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disk
Early Develpoment
p. 75
Name the precursor for the ectoderm and its purpose
epiblast, invaginates to form primitive streak
Cells from the primitive streak give rise to
intraembryonic mesoderm and endoderm
How many germ layers in second week and what are they?
2, epiblast and hypoblast (remember rule of 2's for second week)
How many cavities in second week and what are they?
2, amniotic cavity and yolk sac (remember rule of 2's for second week)
How many components to placenta in second week and what are they?
2, cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast (remember rule of 2's for second week)
How many germ layers in third week and what are they?
3, (gastrula): ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm (Rule of 3's for third week)
Fetal Erythropoiesis
p. 75
In the 3-8th weeks, fetal erythropoiesis occurs in
Yolk sac
In the 6-30th weeks, fetal erythropoiesis occurs in
In the 9-28th weeks, fetal erythropoiesis occurs in
Erythropoiesis occurs in the Bone marrow from the ---- week onward
Mnemonic for remembering fetal erythropoiesis?
Young Liver Synthesizes Blood
Heart Embryology
p. 75
Embryonic structure
Gives rise to
Truncus arteriosus
Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
Bulbus cordis
Smooth parts of left and right ventricle
Primitive ventricle
trabeculated parts of left and right ventricle
Primitive atria
trabeculated left and right atrium
Left horn of sinus venosus (SV)
coronary sinus
Right horn of sinus venosus (SV)
smooth part of right atrium
Right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein
Monozygotic twins have ---- amniotic sacs, ----- placentas, ---- chorions
Dizygotic (fraternal) twins have ---- amniotic sacs, ----- placentas, ---- chorions