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245 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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_____ is any system of policies and procedures used for identifying, controlling, and protecting from unauthorized disclosure, information whose protection is authorized by executive order or statue. |
INFOSEC
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______ aims to both identify and protect unclassified information or activities, that when analyzed with other information, can reveal protected friendly operations, information, or activities. |
OPSEC
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_____ outlines measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons access to information derived from telecommunications and to ensure the authenticity of those communications. |
COMSEC |
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What four subsets does COMSEC include?
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Cryptosecurity, Emission security, Traffic flow security, Transmissions security
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______ is defined as measures and controls that ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information systems being processed, stored, and communicated.
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COMPUSEC
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Safes, vaults, perimeter barriers, guard systems, and other access controls designed to safeguard installations from damage, destruction, or unauthorized entry is an example of what type of security?
A. Physical Security B. Personnel Security C. Operations Security D. Information Security |
A. Physical Security
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______ is a defensive action that attempts to prevent our adversaries from gaining and exploiting our unclassified, but critical information
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OPSEC
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All physical measures necessary to protect classified information from access by unauthorized persons.
A. Personnel Security B. OPSEC C. Operations Security D. Physical Security |
D. Physical Security
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This type of information must be maintained in confidence in order to protect US citizens, democratic institutions, homeland security, and interactions with foreign nations.
A. National security information B. Sensitive compartmented information C. Classified material D. Secret information |
A. National security information
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_____ refers to the means or procedure, such as selective investigations, record checks, personal interviews, and supervisory control designed to provide reasonable assurance that those being considered for and granted access to sensitive information are loyal and trustworthy.
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Personnel Security
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Wearing a control badge is an example of:
A. Physical security B. Personnel security C. Operations security D. Information security |
B. Personnel security
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T or F
It is the policy of the US to extend the same rights of US persons to those of a host government and its citizens |
True - this guidance can be found in USSID SP0009
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______ is classified information concerning or derived from intelligence sources, methods, or analytical processes.
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Sensitive compartmented information (SCI)
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The management of SCI is the responsibility of who?
A. The SSO B. The User C. The DNI D. The SECDEF |
C. The DNI
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______ is an all-encompassing term used for material deemed critical to US national defense.
A. National security information B. Sensitive compartmented information C. Classified material D. Secret information |
A. National security information
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_______ classification is the initial determination that information requires protection.
A. Derivative classification B. Foreign disclosure C. Original classification D. Secret classification |
C. Original classification
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Who issues security classification guides that others use in making derivative classification decisions?
A. DNI B. OCA's C. SSO D. Intel Flight Commander |
B. OCA - Original Classification authorities
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_____ classification is the act of classifying a specific item of information or material on the basis that an original classification decision has already been made by an authorized OCA.
A. Derivative B. Original C. Foreign Disclosure |
A. Derivative
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_____ is an official specifically designated in writig to disclose or deny classified military information in accordance with National Disclosure Policy 1.
A. Foreign Disclosure Officer (FDO) B. DNI C. SSO D. Information Assurance Officer |
A. Foreign Disclosure Officer
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T or F
Classified material doesn't need to be in use or direct control of an authorized person as long as the material itself is in a secure room. |
F
Classified material must always be in use or in direct control of an authorized person in the sameroom as the material. Otherwise, the classified material must be stored in a locked container. |
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What AFI provides basic guidance on the type of cotainers to be used for stordage?
A. AFI 36-2903 B. AFI 31-401 C. AFI 32-493 D. AFI 31-906 |
B. AFI 31-401
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A ____ is a formally accredited area, room , group of rooms, buildings, or installation, where SCI may be stored, used, discussed, or processed.
A. Vault B. Safe C. SCIF |
C. SCIF
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There are two types of SCIFs and they defined as:
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Open Storage & Closed Storage
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_______ is used daily for handling, processing, or discussing SCI material. No SCI material may be stored here.
A. Secure working area B. Secure area C. Continuous operations area D. Temporary secure area |
A. Secure working area
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An area such as an operations buildig. Two or more SCI indoctrinated people who can maintain continuous entry control of the facility occupy the area.
A. Secure working area B. Secure area C. Continuous operations area D. Temporary secure area |
C. Continuous operations area
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This area is open and provides protection for SCI 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
A. Secure working area B. Secure area C. Continuous operations area D. Temporary secure area |
C. Continuous operations area
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A temporarily acredited facility used for storing, handling, discussing and processing SCI. It can be established for 6 months.
A. Secure working area B. Secure area C. Continuous operations area D. Temporary secure area |
D. Temporary secure area
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An area in which SCI can be stored in approved security containers and openly discussed and used.
A. Secure working area B. Secure area C. Continuous operations area D. Temporary secure area |
B. Secure area
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An area under the control of a designated custodian and used to store (open storage) and protect SCI material.
A. Secure vault area B. Temporary secure working area C. Continuous operations area D. Non-discussion area |
A. Secure vault area
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Anarea , room , or group of rooms secured against physical and audio penetration for the temporary use of SCI.
A. Temporary secure working area B. Secure area C. Continuous operations area D. Temporary secure area |
A. Temporary secure working area
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T or F
SCI material entering a SCIF is logged, but no further documentation is requiredunless the material leaves the SCIF. |
True
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What are the basic requirements for the destruction of classified material?
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Supervise the destruction,
Safeguard the material until it is actually destroyed, Destroy the material completely so classified contant can't be restored or revaled. through any visual, physical, technial, or chemical process. |
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When possible, destroy classified material by ______.
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Burning
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Destruction records are required for Top Secret and Secret information and are maintained for a minimum of ____ years.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 |
A. 2
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How many witnesses must sign the record of destruction for Top Secret information? How many for Secret information?
A. 1 for TS and 1 for S B. 2 for TS and 2 for S C. 2 for TS and 1 for S D. 1 for TS and 1 for S |
C. 2 for TS and 1 for S
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Using badges to control access to a SCIF is an example of ______.
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Personnel Security
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What is the difference between original and derivative classification?
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Original classification is the initialnation that information requires protection, while Derivative classification is the act of classifying a specific item of information or material on the basis that an original classification decision has already been made by an OCA.
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What are the two types of SCIFs?
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Open and Closed Storage
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Define INFOSEC.
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A process of procedures used to protect information.
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What four different types of security comprise COMSEC?
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Cryptosecurity, emission security, traffic flow security, and transmissions security.
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What are the fundamental principles that guide the employment of US military forces in coordinated action toward a common objective.
A. Mission B. Doctrine C. Role D. Objective |
B. Doctrine
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What is the objective of Joint Intelligence?
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To integrate service and national intelligence capabilities into a unified effort that surpasses and single organizational effort and provides the most accurate and timely intelligence to commanders
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Principles of Joint Intelligence:
Perspective |
Think like the adversary
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Principles of Joint Intelligence:
Synchronization |
Synchronize intelligence with plans and operations.
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Principles of Joint Intelligence:
Integrity |
Remain intellectually honest
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Principles of Joint Intelligence:
Unity if effort |
Cooperate to achieve a common end state
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Principles of Joint Intelligence:
Prioritization |
Prioritize requirements based on commander's guidance.
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Principles of Joint Intelligence:
Excellence |
Strive to achieve the highest standards of quality
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Principles of Joint Intelligence:
Prediction |
Accept the risk of predicting adversary intentions.
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Principles of Joint Intelligence:
Agility |
Remain flexible and adapt to changing situations.
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Principles of Joint Intelligence:
Collaboration |
Leverage expertise of diverse analytic resources
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Principles of Joint Intelligence:
Fusion |
Exploit all sources of information and intelligence.
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What is the objective of Joint Intelligence?
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To integrate service and national intelligence capabilities into a unified effort that surpasses any single organizational effort and provides the most accurate and timely inteligence to commanders.
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Which principles of Joint Intelligence states you must be intellectually honest?
A. Integrity B. Excellence C. Prioritization |
A. Integrity
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Collarboration leverages the ______ of diverse analytic resources?
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Expertise
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Which principles exploits all sources of information and intelligence?
A. Agility B. Synchronization C. Fusion D. Unity of effort |
C. Fusion
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Who has a responsibility for a geographic area of responsibility?
A. Flight Commanders B. AOR Commanders C. Combatant Commanders D. Mission Commanders |
C. Combatant Commanders
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Unified commands are organized in what two categories?
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Functional and geographical
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How many geographic commands are there? Name them.
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6
US Europan Command US Africa Command US Pacific Command US Northern Command US Southern Command US Central Command |
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How many functional unified commands are there? Name them.
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3
US Special Operations Command US Transportation Command US Strategic Command |
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When authorized by the SecDef through the CJCS, commanders of unified commands may establish __________ to conduct operations on a continuing basis in accordance with the criteria set forth for unified commands.
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subordinate unified commands
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ISR at this level is focused on threat warning, mission planning, targeting, and assessment.
A. Tactical B. Operational C. Strategic |
A. Tactical
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T or F
A JTF may not be established on a geographical area or functional basis when the mission has a specific limited objective. |
False
A JTF may be established on a geographical area or functional basis when the mission has a specific limited objective. |
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T or F
A JTF does not require overall centralized controlof logistics. |
True
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The ______ is made up of staff directorates corresponding to the major functions of command, such s personnel, intelligence, operations, logistics, plans, and communications systems.
A. Joint Task Force B. Joint Staff Group C. Unified Command D. Joint Organization |
B. Joint Staff group
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Which joint staff group focues on intelligence?
A. J1 B. J2 C. J3 D. J4 |
B. J2 Intelligence directorate
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Who are the primary intelligence organizations providing support to joint forces at operational and tactical levels?
A. JIOC B. J2 C. JTF D. Joint Staff |
A. JIOC
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What are the three levels of commands used by joint forces?
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Unified commands, subordinate unified commands, and joint task forces (JTF)
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How many of the unified commands are organized geographically?
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6
NORTHCOM SOUTHCOM PACOM EUCOM AFRICOM CENTCOM |
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T or F
A JTF is established on a geographic basis only? |
F
A JTF can be established on a geographic or functional basis |
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Which directorate of a Joint Staff has the primary function to support the commander and the staff by ensuring the availability of reliable intelligence and timely indications and warnings?
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J2
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What serves as the primary intelligence organization providing support to joint forces at operational and tactical levels?
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JIOC
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How many levels of war are there? What are they?
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3
Strategic, Operational, and Tactical |
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At the ______ level of war, the US determines national security objectives and guidance and utilizes national resources to accomplish these objectives.
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Strategic
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The role of ISR at this level is to provide accurate, timely, and predictive intelligence so decision makers can take appropriate actions before or during a crisis.
A. Tactical B. Operational C. Strategic |
C. Strategic
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At the _______ level of war, campaigns and major operations are planned, conducted, and assessed.
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Operational
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At this level the goal of ISR is to provide intelligence crucial to understanding an enemy's weaknesses and key nodes that can be affected.
A. Tactical B. Operational C. Strategic |
B. Operational
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This is the level where individual battles and engagements are fought.
A. Tactical B. Operational C. Strategic |
A. Tactical
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This is a conflict between governments, nations, or coalitions.
A. Traditional B. Irregular warfare C. Conventional D. Symmetric |
A. Traditional
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This is a conflict in which one or more of the participants is a nonstate entity and is trying to either overthrow the governing entity or is trying to win over the public.
A. Traditional B. Irregular warfare C. Conventional D. Symmetric |
B. Irregular warfare
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This is a conflict between equally capable forces.
A. Traditional B. Irregular warfare C. Conventional D. Symmetric |
D. Symmetric
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_______ warfare is conducted using security forces and regular military personnel and does not use chemical, biological, nuclearm or radiological, weaponry.
A. Traditional B. Irregular warfare C. Conventional D. Symmetric |
C. Conventional
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T or F
WWII was an example of irregular warfare. |
False
WWII was a traditional war. |
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Which type of warfare includes the use of insurgencies as well as cointerinsurgency (COIN) and counterterrorism operations?
A. Traditional B. Irregular warfare C. Conventional D. Symmetric |
B. Irregular warfare
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What type of warfare will generally use locals and other guerilla-type forces?
A. Traditional B. Irregular warfare C. Conventional D. Unconventional warfare |
D. Unconventional warfare
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Operations in this type of conflict include sabotage, intelligence activites, and unconventional recovery activites.
A. Traditional B. Irregular warfare C. Conventional D. Unconventional warfare |
D. Unconventional warfare
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The Cold War is a form of what kind of warfare?
A. Irregular B. Asymmetric C. Unconventional |
C. Unconventional
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_______ warfare is a conflict between groups that are not equally equipped.
A. Symmetric B. Asymmetric C. Irregular D. Unconventional |
B. Asymmetric
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What are the three levels of war?
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Strategic, Operational, Tactical
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Which level of war addresses issues of why we will fight, what we will fight with, and why the enemy fights against us?
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Strategic
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At the operational level of war, why do campaign planners rely on ISR?
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Planners rely on ISR to provide intelligence crucial to understanding an enemy's weaknesses and key nodes that can be affected.
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Which level of war can be described as where individual battles and engagements are fought?
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Tactical level
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Sabotage is a type of _____ warfare.
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Unconventional
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What is the difference between symmetric and asymmetric warfare?
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Symmetric is a conflict between equally capable forces. Asymmetric is a conflict between groups that are not equally equipped.
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A military peration designated by the SecDef as an operation in which the members of the armed forces are or may become involve in military actions, operations, or hostilities against an enemy of the U.S.
A. Conflict B. Contingency operation C. Joint operation D. Major operation |
B. Contingency operation
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When required to achieve national strategic objectives or to protect national interests, the US national leadership my decide to conduct a _________ or campaign involving large-scale combat, placing the United States in a wartime state.
A. Conflict B. Contingency operation C. Joint operation D. Major operation |
D. Major Operation
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A crisis response or _____________ ca be a single small-scale, limited-duration operation or a significant part of a major operation of extended duration involving combat.
A. Limited contingency operation B. Contingency operation C. Joint operation D. Major operation |
A. Limited contingency operation
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An ______ is a written description of the combatant commander's concept of operations to counter a percieived threat.
A. OPLAN B. PLANORD C. OPORD D. WARNORD |
A. OPLAN
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The ____ is a directive used by the CJCS that initiates development and evaluation of a COA by a suported commander and request a commander's estimate be submited.
A. WARNORD B. PLANORD C. ALERTORD D. OPORD |
A. WARNORD
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The CJCS can send a ______ to the supported commander to direct executlanning before a COA is formally approved by the SecDef and President.
A. WARNORD B. PLANORD C. ALERTORD D. OPORD |
B. PLANORD
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An ________ is normally issued following a decision by the President that conduct of military operations in support of national interets is a distinct possibility.
A. WARNORD B. PLANORD C. OPORD D. ALERTORD |
D. ALERTORD
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An _____ is a directive used by a commander to subordinate commanders for the purpose of executing a coordinated operation.
A. WARNORD B. PLANORD C. OPORD D. ALERTORD |
C. OPORD
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This order is issued by the authority and direction of the SecDef through the CJCS and directs the deployment and/or employment of forces.
A. WARNORD B. EXORD C. OPORD D. ALERTORD |
B. EXORD
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______ are allocated forces by the SecDef to execute their missions in support of the national defense strategy and the President's NationalSecurity Strategy.
A. TPFDD B. CCDRs C. JTFs D. AEFs |
B. CCDRs
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Name the expeditionary forces currently in use within the US Armed forces.
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Air Force - Air Expeditionary Force (AEF)
Army- Brigade Combat Team (BCT) Navy - Expeditionary Strike Force (ESF) Marine Corps - Marine Expeditionary Force (MEF) |
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What does contingency planning attempt to address?
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Contingency planning attempts to address any potential scenario before it happens, giving leadership a head start should that theorized situatin arise.
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What is an OPLAN?
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A written description of the comabtant commander's concept of operations to counter a perceived threat.
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What type of order is normally issued following a decision by the President that conduct of military operations in support of national interests is a distinct possibility?
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ALERTORD
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What is an AEF
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Aerospace Expeditionary Force - The AF's force generation construct used to manage the battle rhythm of these forces in order to meet global CCDR requirements while maintaining the highest possible level of overall readiness.
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T or F
A JSOTF is a permanent, joint SOF headquarters established by the NCA or a JTC to accomplish a specific mission? |
False
They are temporary |
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Define coalition operations
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Coalition operations are a group of nations, including the US, that uses combied military resources for peacekeeping as well as a collective defense against a common enemy.
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What are the two different types of intelligence sharing that may occur between coalition partners?
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Full exchange and liason exchange
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What is defined as the cross-domain synchronization and integration of the planning and operation of ISR assets; sensors; processing, exploitation and dissemination systems; and, analysis and production capabilities across the globe to enable current and future operations?
A. Global Integated ISR B. Integrated Intelligence C. Global ISR D. ISR |
A. Global integrated ISR
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In terms of ISR, what is the primary advantage of using space-based systems?
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The prime advantage of space-based systems is their global and wide-area coverage over denied areas where little or no data can be obtained from ground and airborne sources.
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ISR assets support nuclear operations by providing planners with what?
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ISR assets provide planners the data required to assess the threat envirnment, identify critical targets, determine approriate weapons selection, and provide essential post-strike assessments of both friendly and enemy situations.
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What are the AF MAJCOMs?
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ACC - Air Combat Command
AETC - Air Education and Training Command AFRC - Air Force Reserve Command AMC - Air Mobility Command PACAF - Pacific Air Forces USAFE - US Air Forces Europe AFMC - Air Force Material Command AFSOC - Air Force Special Operations Commad AFSPC - Air Force Space Command AFGSC - Air Foce Global Strike Command |
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What aircraft is designed to permit the AF to gain and maintain air supremacy over the battlefield?
A. F-15 B. F-35 C. F-16 D. F-22 |
F-15
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What aircraft carries the largest payload of both guided and unguided weapons in the AF inventory?
A. B-52 B. B-1B C. B-2 D. A-10 |
B. B-1B
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What is the most flexible airlift aircraft in the AF's inventory?
A. C-5 B. C-130 C. KC-10 D. C-17 |
D. C-17
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What aircraft disrupts enemy command and control communications, and limits adversary coordination essential for enemy force management?
A. EC-130H Compass Call B. EA-6B Prowler C. E-8 JSTARS D. F-16CJ |
A. EC-130H COmpass Call
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What satelitte cpability provides for survivable communications in austere operating environments?
A. DMSP - Defense Meteorological Sattelite Progam B. SATCOM - Defense satellite communications system C. MILSTAR - Military strategic and tactical relay system |
B. SATCOM - Defense satellite communications system
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What US Army system is used to defend ground troops from enemy aircraft and ballistic missiles?
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Air Defense Systems (Patriot)
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Which US Army system's speed and range make it useful for reconnaissance, C2, and communications?
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Armored Cars (Stryker Light)
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What are fast warships providing multi-mission offensive and defensive capability, independently or in fleet support?
A. Cuisers B. Destroyers C. Battleships D. Frigates |
B. Destroyers
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_____ is a unique intellignce discipline that integrates imagery, imagery intellience, and geospatial information.
A. ELINT B. COMINT C. GEOINT D. IMINT |
C. GEOINT
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______ is a likeness or representation of any natural or manmade feature, related object or activity, and the positional data acquired at the time the likeness or representation was acquired.
A. Imagery B. Picture C. Photograph D. Capture |
A. Imagery
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______ is the technical, geographic, and intelligence information derived through the interpretation or analysis of imagery and collateral materials.
A. HUMINT B. IMINT C. SIGINT D. GEOINT |
B. IMINT
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_______ identifies the geographic location and characterisitcs of natural or constructed features and boundaries on Earth.
A. Imagery B. Geospatial Information C. Imagery Intelligence D. Geospatial Intelligence |
B. Geospatial Information
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_______ is a category of intelligence derived from information collected and provided by human sources.
A. COMINT B. SIGINT C. HUMINT D. ELINT |
C. HUMINT
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______ is the systematic effort to procure information to answer specific collection requirements by direct and indirect questioning techniques of a person who is in the custody of the forces conducting the questioning.
A. Debriefing B. Source Operations C. Interrogation D. Media Exploitation |
C. Interrogation
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Designated and fully trained military HUMINT collection personnel may develop information through the elicitation of sources, to include "walk-in" sources, developed sources, and unwitting persons.
A. Debriefing B. Source Operations C. Interrogation D. Media Exploitation |
B. Source Operations
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_____ is the process of questioning cooperating human sources to satisfy intelligence requirements, consistent with applicable law.
A. Debriefing B. Source Operations C. Interrogation D. Media Exploitation |
A. Debriefing
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________ is intelligence produced by exploiting foreign communications systems and noncommunications emitters.
A. COMINT B. SIGINT C. HUMINT D. ELINT |
B. SIGINT
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______ is intelligence and technical information derived from collecting and processing intercepted foreign communications passed by radio, wire, or other electromagnetic means.
A. COMINT B. SIGINT C. HUMINT D. ELINT |
A. COMINT
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______ is intelligence derived from the interception and analysis of noncommunications emitter (radar).
A. COMINT B. SIGINT C. HUMINT D. ELINT |
D. ELINT
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______ involves the technical analysis of data intercepted from foreign equipment and control systems such as telemetry, electronic interrogaters, tracking/fusing/arming/firing command systems, and video data links.
A. COMINT B. SIGINT C. FISINT D. ELINT |
C. FISINT
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______ is scientific and technical intelligence obtained by quantitative and qualitative analysisof data derived from specific technical sensors for the purpose of identifying distinctive features associated with the target, source, emitter, or sender.
A. MASINT B. SIGINT C. HUMINT D. ELINT |
A. MASINT
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______ is derived from the exploitation of foreign material and scientific information.
A. MASINT B. SIGINT C. TECHINT D. ELINT |
C. TECHINT
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_____ performs and manages inelligence functions and activities to support the United States and allied forces
A. 14N B. 1N0 C. 1N1 D. 1N4 |
A. 14N
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Personnel assigned to this specialty prepare, maintain, and present intelligence diplays, reports, and briefings.
A. 14N B. 1N0X1 C. 1N1X1A D. 1N4X1A |
B. 1N0X1
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Personnl assigned to this specialty exploit and analyze multisensor imagery in conjunction with all-source intelligence information.
A. 1N1X1B - Geospatial intelligence targeteer B. 1N0X1 - Operation intelligence C. 1N1X1A - Geospatial intelligence analyst D. 1N4X1A - Digital network intelligence analyst |
D. 1N1X1A
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{ersonne assigned to this specialty make recommendations on the appropriate form required to disablean adversary's targeting system. They determine the specific aircraft and ammunition, and anticipate the effect of the weapons to minimze the collateral damage while still accomplishing the mission.
A. 1N1X1B - Geospatial intelligence targeteer B. 1N0X1 - Operation intelligence C. 1N1X1A - Geospatial intelligence analyst D. 1N4X1A - Digital network intelligence analyst |
A. 1N1X1B - Geospatial intelligence targeteer
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Personnel assigned to this specialty support SIGINT activities and operations by monitoring and collecting noncommunications electronic signal transmissions using passive receiving equipment.
A. 1N1X1B - Geospatial intelligence targeteer B. 1N2X1A - Electronic Signals intelligence exploitation analyst C. 1N1X1A - Geospatial intelligence analyst D. 1N4X1A - Digital network intelligence analyst |
B. 1N2X1A - Electronic Signals intelligence exploitation analyst
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Personnel assigned to this specialty perform communication signals intelligence analysis to include acquiring signals through optimum antenna manipulation and recever tuning.
A. 1N2X1C Coomunication signals intelligence analyst B. 1N2X1A - Electronic Signals intelligence exploitation analyst C. 1N1X1A - Geospatial intelligence analyst D. 1N4X1A - Digital network intelligence analyst |
B. 1N2X1A - Electronic Signals intelligence exploitation analyst
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Imagine you are getting ready to deploy, proper application of which security principle should be applied when posting deployment related unclassified information to social media websites?
A. Oversight program B. Personnel security C. COMSEC D. OPSEC |
D. OPSEC
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Information concerning or derived from intelligence sources, methods or analytical processes which is required to be handled exclusively within formal access control systems is called?
A. Special Connections Intelligence B. Susceptible Classified Information C. Sensitive Compartmented Information D. Sensitive Communications Information |
C. Sensitive Compartmented Information
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The act of classifying a specific item of information on the basis that an original classification decision has already been made by an authorized OCA is known as what?
A. Original classification B. Derivative classification C. NOFORN classification D. Authorized classification |
B. Derivative classification
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If SrA Snow needed guidance to classify an intelligence assessment, which of the following documents would she need to access?
A. TITLE 32 B. EO 12333 C. EO 12958 D. AFMAN 14-304 |
C. EO 12958
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There is a new safe in the work center. When should the combination be changed?
A. Immediately B. After 6 Months C. After 24 Months D. When material normally stored within the safe or container is accounted for. |
A. Immediately
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A temporary working area will not be used to store SCI and will not be used in excess of?
A. 40 hours per week B. 50 hours per week C. 40 hours per month D. 50 hours per month |
C. 40 hours per month
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In regards to recording the destruction of classified material, how many witnesses must sign the paperwork?
A. 2 for Secret, 3 for Top Secret B. 2 for Secret, 2 For Top Secret C. 1 For Secret, 2 For Top Secret D. 1 For Secret, 1 For Top Secret |
C. 1 For Secret, 2 For Top Secret
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The objective of joint intelligence is to?
A. Defeat all enemies B. Confuse the enemy C. For all services to work together at one location D. Integrate service and national intelligence capabilities |
D. Integrate service and national intelligence capabilities
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What is the primary function of joint intelligence?
A. To prioritize the joint force's intelligence needs B. To determine the joint force's intelligence needs C. To provide information and assessments to facilitate accomplishment of the mission D. To develop an optimal joint collection plan and strategy to meet commander requirements |
C. To provide information and assessments to facilitate accomplishment of the mission
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What fundamental principle of joint intelligence doctrine calls for ISR professionals to remain flexible and adapt to changing situations?
A. Agility B. Integrity C. Excellence D. Collaboration |
A. Agility
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Which principle of joint intelligence allows the analyst to think like the enemy?
A. Collaboration B. Prioritization C. Perspective D. Agility |
C. Perspective
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During an international incident, a smaller skirmish has flared up. The commander has a specific and limited objective for the mission. Which of the following will be created to address this situation?
A. Joint Command B. Joint Task Force C. Coalition Alliance D. Unified Command |
B. Joint Task Force
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Which directorate of the Joint Staff has primary function to support the commander and the staff by ensuring the availability of reliable intelligence and timely indications and warnings?
A. J-1 B. J-2 C. J-3 D. J-4 |
B. J-2
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SSgt Strong is working in a joint environment and has to brief the current operational status of the EP-3. Which directorate of the Joint Staff would he most likely report this to?
A. J-1 B. J-3 C. J-5 D. J-6 |
B. J-3 Operations directorate
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An ISR function at the strategic level of war is to research foreign weapons systems in order to provide force protection as a part of what overall role?
A. Assistance with tactical mission planning B. Intelligence support to operational planners C. Accurate, timely, and predictive intelligence D. Preparation of National intelligence estimates |
C. Accurate, timely, and predictive intelligence
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What type of conflict includes insurgencies such as the Iraqi insurgency, as well as COIN operations and counter-terrorism operation.
A. Irregular warfare B. Asymmetric warfare C. Conventional warfare D. Unconventional warfare |
A. Irregular warfare
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If an insurgent group is conducting terrorist activities at the same time their host country is using ballistic missiles to attack, what type of warfare would this be?
A. Hybrid B. Irregular C. Asymmetric D. Traditional |
C. Asymmetric
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The general goal of any operation is to counter potential threats to US national security interest and to?
A. Enforce peace at all cost B. Meet the President's political objectives C. Prevail against the enemy as quickly as possible D. Ensure security and safety for noncombatants and civilians |
C. Prevail against the enemy as quickly as possible
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Which type of planning occurs for real-world real-time emergencies?
A. Crisis action B. Critical action C. Disaster action D. Time-critical action |
A. Crisis action
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The commander's staff has produced a document that identifies forces and supplies required, and provides a schedule for moving resources. What is this document called?
A. ALERTORD B. PLANORD C. EXORD D. OPLAN |
D. OPLAN
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Special operations forces within a joint task force are controlled by?
A. joint special operations task force B. AF Special Operations Command C. National command authorities D. Delta Force |
A. joint special operations task force
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Which is not a Joint Special Operations Task Force responsibility?
A. Plan special operations autonomously B. Plan and coordinate special operations C. Make recommendations on SOF assets to the JFC D. Synchronize special operations with other component commanders |
A. Plan special operations autonomously
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Which of the below is an example of a coalition operation?
A. USAF and USN B. USAF and US Army C. US military and Australian operation D. Dept of Homeland Security and US Army |
C. US military and Australian operation
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Global Integrated ISR (GIISR) enables all of the following except?
A. cross-domain synchronization B. delivery of intelligence to the right person at the right time C. development of detailed collection plans that are domain specific D. utilization of multiple ISR assets from multiple geographic commands |
C. development of detailed collection plans that are domain specific
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What is the primary advantage of using space-based ISR?
A. Space-based ISR is unaffected by weather B. Space-based ISR can confirm ISR from ground souces C. Space-based ISR is the most cost effective type of collection D. Space-based ISR enables global ISR coverage over denied areas |
D. Space-based ISR enables global ISR coverage over denied areas
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Which type of GIISR is integral to military forces and includes digital network analysis?
A. Nuclear B. Cyberspace C. Digital Forensics D. Information Operations |
B. Cyberspace
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Which tenet of Air and Space Power supports GIISR by applying a focused force that produces effects which may exceed the contributions of the forces employed individually?
A. Priority B. Balance C. Synergy D. Concentration |
C. Synergy
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How many MAJCOMS are there in the AF?
A. 20 B. 15 C. 10 D. 5 |
C.10
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Which aircraft is designed specifically to replace the A-10, F-16, and F/A-18?
A. F-22 B. F-35 C. F-15E D. F/A-18E/F |
B. F-35
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When planning support for a mobility operation, which cargo aircraft would provide operational forces with the most flexibility?
A. C-5 B. C-130 C. KC-10 D. C-17 |
D. C-17
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What US Army system is mainly used to provide survivable and highly mobile fire support for armor and infantry troops?
A. Self-proppelled howitzers B. Field Artillery C. Air Defense D. Tanks |
A. Self-proppelled howitzers
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What US Navy system allows mobile projection of naval air power across the globe?
A. Cruisers B. Destroyers C. Battleships D. Aircraft Carriers |
D. Aircraft Carriers
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Which intelligence discipline provides a valuable source of information for automated planning systems and precision guided munitions?
A. FISINT B. OSINT C. GEOINT D. HUMINT |
C. GEOINT
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Which discipline exploits the adversary's communication and can reveal their intentions?
A. IMINT B. ELINT C. MASINT D. COMINT |
D. COMINT
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Information of intelligence value that was found on CNN would be categorized as?
A. Foreign instrumentation signals intelligence B. Communications security C. Open source intelligence D. Operations security |
C. Open source intelligence
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Which intelligence discipline's collections methods would include gathering source information from closed arms proliferation talks?
A. ELINT B. COMINT C. OSINT D. HUMINT |
D. HUMINT
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The 1NX31 AFSC deals with what?
A. Imagery B. Electronic signals C. Foreign languages D. Communications structures |
C. Foreign languages
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Which intelligence specialty researches, analyzes, and provides time-critical network warfare operations intelligence to theater COCOMs?
A. 1N2X1A B. 1N2X1C C. 1N4X1A D. 1N4X1B |
C. 1N4X1A
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Personnel assigned to this intelligence specialty fly as primary aircrew onboard a wide variety of aircraft to operate, evaluate and manage airborne ISR information?
A. 1A8X1 B. 1A8X2 C. 1N1X1A D. 1N1X1B |
B. 1A8X2
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Which agency is responsible to the president through the DNI?
A. CIA B. DIA C. FBI D. NSA |
A. CIA
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Who maintains operational control of all US military forces conducting SIGINT?
A. CJS B. DIRNSA C. President D. SECDEF |
B. DIRNSA
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The Air Force's service cryptologic element is known as?
A. AFIC B. AFESC C. AFISRA D. INSCOM |
C. AFISRA
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A captured enemy ground force weapon system would likely be exploited by which of the following organizations?
A. National Ground Intelligence Center B. Army Ground Intelligence Command C. United States Ground Defense Agency D. Marine Ground-based Intelligence Center |
A. National Ground Intelligence Center
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Which Title of the USC outlines the role of the armed forces and serves as the legal basis for the roles, missions, and organizations of the DoD?
A. Title 10 B. Title 18 C. Title 32 D. Title 50 |
A. Title 10
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Which title of the USC typically refers to intelligence agencies, intelligence activities, and covert action?
A. Title 10 B. Title 18 C. Title 32 D. Title 50 |
D. Title 50
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Which directorate is the focal point for functional management of all AF intelligence activities?
A. HQ USAF/A1 B. HQ USAF/A2 C. HQ USAF/A3 D. HQ USAF/A4 |
B. HQ USAF/A2
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If an adversary's new stealth bomber crashed over US territory, what AF intelligence organization would be asked to determine performance characteristics, capabilities, and vulnerabilities of this foreign aerospace system?
A. CIA B. AFIA C. NASIC D. AFTC |
C. NASIC
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If you were working at an AOC and needed additional reach back targeting support , what AF intelligence organization would you need to contact?
A. AFTC B. AFIA C. NASIC D. AFISRA |
A. AFTC
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Which phase of the PCPAD process would require an analyst to convert intelligence requirements into a validated collection requirement?
A. Processing B. Collection C. Detection D. Expoitation |
B. Collection
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Under the Analysis and Production phase of PCPAD, what term best defines receiving information from sources, collating it, then entering it into the appropriate database?
A. Analysis B. Integration C. Production D. Interpretation |
B. Integration
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If you tasked an ISR sensor to collect imagery of an enemy cup but the sensor could not collect due to weather restrictions, how should the requirement be handled?
A. Submit a report to HHQ to notify them of the shortfall B. Document results and consider the requirement closed C. Retask the sensor and follow up with remedial actions D. Submit a RFI to NSA to satisfy requirement |
C. Retask the sensor and follow up with remedial actions
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During a contingency operation, the JFACC contacts the AOC's ISRD to obtain real-time picture of the battlespace. What airborne ISR asset could respond quickly to satisfy this requirement?
A. RC-135S Cobra Ball B. U-2 Dragon Lady C. EP-3E Aries II D. E-3 Sentry |
D. E-3 Sentry
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Which aircraft is a national and tactical Signals intelligence collector that exploits and disseminates information regarding the electronic battlefield?
A. E-3 Sentry B. U-2 Dragon Lady C. E-8C Joint Stars D. RC-135V/W Rivet joint |
D. RC-135V/W Rivet joint
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During a special operations mission, the JSOTF commander request ISR support that is compatible with NATO data link, what airborne asset would likely tasked?
A. U-2 Dragon Lady B. MC-12W C. EP-3E D. U-28A |
D. U-28A
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If the commander of USNORTHCOM required intelligence on a potential ballistic missile threat from North korea, which space-based ISR assets would help satisfy the requirement?
A. GPS B. DSP C. PAWS D. DSW HEO |
C. PAWS
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Which system is designed to provide commanders with timely intelligence derived from multiple sources?
A. Rivet Joint B. Air operations center C. Distributed common ground system D. Airborne warning and control system |
C. Distributed common ground system
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What AF weapon system provides PED for most airborne SIGINT and IMINT collection?
A. AOC B. ISRD C. AFISRA D. DCGS-AF |
D. DCGS-AF
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What DGS would most likely be tasked to support a counter drug operation in the USSOUTHCOM AOR?
A. DGS-1 B. DGS-2 C. DGS-3 D. DGS-4 |
B. DGS-2
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Which division within the AOC is responsible for near-term air and space operations planning within 48 hours prior to ATO execution?
A. ISD Division B. Strategy Division C. Combat Plans Division D. Combat Operations Division |
C. Combat Plans Division
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Which division within the AOC would concentrate on long range and near term planning to achieve theater objectives?
A. Strategy Division B. Air Mobility Division C. Combat Plans Division D. Combat Operations Division |
A. Strategy Division
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SMSgt Jones is assigned to the ISRD team that is the AOC's primary producer of actionable intelligence. What section does she work in?
A. ISE B. PED C. ACF D. ISR Ops |
C. ACF
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What support element provides imagery exploitation with the AOC to support ISRD efforts, and may be tasked to serve as a backup exploitation made?
A. Imagery Support Element (ISE) B. National tactical integration C. Targets and tactical assessments team D. Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance team |
A. Imagery Support Element (ISE)
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What team has the overall responsibility of producing the RSTA annex and coordinating with JFC collection managers regarding national collection?
A. ISE B. PED C. ACF D. ISR Operations |
D. ISR Operations
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SMSgt Houck is assigned to 24 AF and has questions about the daily Cyber Tasking Order, which functional AOC would he to contact for assistance?
A. 608 AOC B. 614 AOC C. 623 AOC D. 624 OC |
D. 624 OC
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What is the step 2 in IPOE?
A. Evaluate the adversary B. Define the operational environment C. Determine the adversary COA D. Describe the operational environment effects |
D. Describe the operational environment effects
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During which step of the of IPOE would an analyst prepare a detailed assessment on an adversary's capabilities to include tactics and key COG's?
A. Step 1 B. Step 2 C. Step 3 D. Step 4 |
C. Step 3
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As an analyst supporting a campaign, which aspect of IPOE would include dynamically re-tasking an ISR asset to satisfy a CCIR?
A. ISR planning B. ISR Execution C. ISR employment D. Target development |
C. ISR employment
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What type of targeting is the procedure for attacking targets that have been detected, identified and developed in sufficient time for them to become part of a scheduled ATO?
A. Planned B. Dynamic C. Deliberate D. Time-sensitive |
C. Deliberate
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HUMINT sources have tipped off the AOC that a known insurgent group is building IED's and plan on placing them on established US patrol routes. What phase of the kill chain would ISR assets be engaged in?
A. Fix B. Find C. Track D. Assess |
b. find
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During which targeting process phase are collateral damage and ROE restrictions reviewed?
A. Fix B. Track C. Target D. Engage |
C. Target
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If you wanted to strike a hospital to ensure enemy forces could not be treated for injuries, which type of targeting restriction would you have violated?
A. No Strike List B. Restricted Targets C. Collateral Damage D. Rules or Engagement |
A. No Strike List
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Which term is one of the three integrated employment capabilities of IO?
A. Impact operations B. Sustainable operations C. Network warfare operations D. Offensive warfare operations |
C. Network warfare operations
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This capability is designed ti affect behaviors, protect operation, communicate commanders intent and project accurate information to achieve desired effects across the cognitive domain.
A. Influence Operations B. Influence Superiority C. Information Operations D. Information Superiority |
A. Influence Operations
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Which type of IO activity would help prevent a nation state threat from assassinating the President?
A. Counterintelligence B. Counterproaganda C, Military Deception D. Psychological |
A. Counterintelligence
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Airmen on computer networks have determined and reported to their commander the apparent intrusion of the AF networks by a known hacker and appropriate countermeasures are taken. This is an example of?
a. NetA b. NetD c. NS d. NW |
B. NetD
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On a map, a large lake would be represented by which color?
a. Aqua. b. Blue. c. Green. d. Purple. |
b. Blue
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f the base commander at an overseas location wanted to run a news story to emphasize the high readiness levels of his/her base defense forces, which IO activity does this support?
a. Force Protection. b. Psychological. c. Base Defense. d. Public Affairs. |
d. Public Affairs
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If you needed to locate a helicopter pad in support of an AFSOC operation, what color should you look for on a map?
a. Purple. b. Brown. c. Green. d. Red. |
A. Purple
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If you needed to determine runway characteristics to support a C-17 DV movement, a map will contain all of the following runway information except?
a. Runway surface. b. Elevation above mean sea level. c. Length of the longest runway (in hundreds of feet). d. Length of the longest runway (in meters of kilometers). |
d. Length of the longest runway (in meters of kilometers).
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What shows the geographic area that a map covers?
a. Grid reference box. b. Location diagram. c. Legend diagram. d. Location box. |
b. Location diagram.
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Which geographic or military grid reference coordinate is written correctly?
a. 17IVH83677238. b. 23SUH569089367. c. 234312N 0120908E. d. 384572N 0774308W. |
c. 234312N 0120908E.
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When plotting coordinates using the geocoords method, which of the following represents the correct order?
a. Degrees, minutes, seconds. b. Minutes, degrees, seconds. c. Seconds, minutes, degrees. d. Degrees, seconds, minutes. |
a. Degrees, minutes, seconds.
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When plotting with the MGRS system using the right and up technique, the first character of the coordinate represents what?
a. Latitude zone. b. Degree of longitude. c. UTM grid zone number. d. Two-letter meter identifier. |
c. UTM grid zone number.
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Which is NOT one of the goals of the DoD personnel recovery program (PRO)?
a. Returning isolated personnel to friendly control. b. Allowing enemies a potential source of intelligence. c. Maintaining the moral of our fighting forces and the national will. d. Preventing the exploitation of captured personnel in propaganda programs. |
b. Allowing enemies a potential source of intelligence.
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Which of the following PRO tasks occurs before recovery operations when forces must authenticate the identity of the isolated person?
a. Verify. b. Locate. c. Extract. d. Recover. |
b. Locate.
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What task begins when the recovery force relinquishes physical control of previously isolated personnel?
a. Reintegrate. b. Support. c. Locate. d. Ready. |
a. Reintegrate.
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What is the purpose of critical thinking?
a. To solve problems. b. To improve our thinking. c. To evaluate points of view. d. To understand the elements of thought. |
b. To improve our thinking.
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Word gets back to the AOC that a coalition aircraft was seen plummeting to earth with a smoke trail. Someone in the center says ―Guess the bad guys got those new SAMs. Without any proof of this, what type of statement is this?
a. Hypothesis. b. Mindset. c. Logic. d. Bias. |
a. Hypothesis.
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What type of bias is affected by a group's specific goals or preconceived ideas?
a. Organizational. b. Cognitive. c. Collective. d. Cultural. |
a. Organizational.
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Which bias is an unconscious belief which influences the act of knowing or making a judgment call?
a. Cultural bias. b. Personal bias. c. Cognitive bias. d. Organizational bias. |
c. Cognitive bias.
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Which of the following is a form of patterning by perceiving a similarity between events or things because of superficial features?
a. Cause and effect. b. Explanations. c. Stereotyping. d. Cultural. |
c. Stereotyping.
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Observing and building an argument to arrive at a conclusion is using?
a. Reason. b. Inference. c. Inplication. d. Common sense. |
a. Reason.
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What type of reasoning is being used if one concludes something is true by using logical conclusions based on facts?
a. Deductive b. Inductive. c. Abductive. d. Abdicative. |
b. Inductive.
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What element of reasoning does the following statement best describe, "If Sheila is Jack's mother and Sylvia is Jack's grandmother then Sheila is Sylvia's daughter"?
a. Perspective. b. Perception. c. Inference. d. Purpose. |
c. Inference.
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What type of question requires little to no reasoning?
a. Fact. b. Judgment. c. Suggested. d. Preference. |
a. Fact.
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Which element of reasoning is defined as the logical relationship between two propositions in which, if the first is true the second is true.
a. Judgment. b. Evidence. c. Implications. d. Assumptions. |
c. Implications.
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Which type of question is answered by interpreting facts and observations?
a. Fact. b. Preference. c. Suggested. d. Judgment. |
d. Judgment.
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Which intellectual standard weighs the relevance of the information as it applies to the decision maker's circumstances?
a. Fairness. b. Precision. c. Relevance. d. Significance. |
d. Significance.
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Which intellectual standard describes how broad or narrow of a perspective the analyst may have when solving a problem?
a. Clarity. b. Breadth. c. Precision. d. Relevance. |
b. Breadth.
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Which of the following best describes the relationship between PCPAD and IPOE?
a. PCPAD enables ISR collection and IPOE helps shape decision making. b. IPOE supports PCPAD and is used independently to deliver battle space effects. c. PCPAD occurs after the IPOE to deliver ISR collection to contingency planners. d. IPOE and PCPAD are two distinct planning processes that do not require integration. |
a. PCPAD enables ISR collection and IPOE helps shape decision making.
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g
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h
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