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50 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
An aircrew member entering UPT requires a

a) Flying class I physical
b) Flying class II physical
c) Flying class IIA physical
d) Flying class IIB physical
a) Flying class I physical
Which class of flight physicals qualifies a physician applicant for aerospace medicine primary training?

a) Flying class I physical
b) Flying class II physical
c) Flying class IIA physical
d) Flying class IIB physical
b) Flying class II physical
Which class of flight physical qualifies CEAs for flying duties?

a) Flying class II physical
b) Flying class III physical
c) Flying class IIA physical
d) Flying class IIB physical
b) Flying class III physical
A categorical flying class IIA flight physical is administered to

a) undergraduate flight training students
b) rated officers for duty in low-G aircraft
c) CEAs and ABMs
d) selection and entry into UPT
b) rated officers for duty in low-G aircraft
An aircrew member with a birth date of 11 january enters an eligiblity period during which you can schedule him or her a flight physical from

a) 1 October through 11 January
b) 1 November through 11 January
c) 1 October through 31 January
d) 1 November through 31 January
d) 1 November through 31 January
In the event an aircrew member allows his or her medical certification to expire and cannot obtain an AF Form 1042 from the flight surgeon's office stating the member is to remain qualified, the HARM office

a) takes no action until a valid AF Form 1042 is received from the flight surgeon's office
b) medically disqualifies the member effective the date the flight physical expired
c) publishes an AO assigning ASC 04
d) files the AF Form 1042 is a suspense file for 90 days
c) publishes an AO assigning ASC 04
What is the proper disposition of an initial clearance AF Form 1042?

a) File in a suspense file until receipt of the next 1042
b) File in the member's flight record folder until completion of the member's next annual flight physical
c) After updating the information in ARMS, destroy the AF Form 1042
d) File in the member's flight record folder until the member is placed on DNIF status
b) File in the member's flight record folder until completion of the member's next annual flight physical
If an aircrew member has been disqualified for less than 12 months and requests medical recertification, the medical qualification is certified by

a) HQ USAF/XOOT
b) HQ AFPC/DPAOY
c) HQ AFMOA/SGPA
d) the local flight surgeon's office
d) the local flight surgeon's office
If an aircrew member has been disqualified for over 5 years and requests medical requalification, the medical qualification must be certified by

a) HQ USAF/XOOT
b) HQ AFPC/DPAOY
c) HQ AFMOA/SGPA
d) the local flight surgeon's office
c) HQ AFMOA/SGPA
The HARM office is notified of an aircrew member's medical waiver

a) via the remarks section of the AF form 1042
b) by receiving a waiver letter from HQ AFMOA/SGPA
c) by receiving a waiver letter from the local flight surgeon's office
d) no later than 10 days prior to the expiration of the member's flight physical
a) via the remarks section of the AF form 1042
an aircrew member who is to depart on TDY 28 August and whose flight physical expires 31 October, must schedule a flight physical

a) prior to departing TDY on 28 August
b) anytime between 1 August and 31 October
c) within 6 months prior to the expiration date
d) immediately upon arrival at the TDY location
a) prior to departing TDY on 28 August
For medical examinations for aircrew members initially placed on flying status, the date you enter into ARMS is the

a) date the member signed the form
b) actual date found medically cleared
c) date the flight surgeon signed the form
d) date at the top of the form indicating when the form was completed
c) date the flight surgeon signed the form
In order to update the flight physical due date manually, the flight physical status code must be

a) U
b) F
c) B
d) A
b) F
When entering the phyical availability date in ARMS for aircrew members who are removed from medical qualification, use the date

a) from the unit commander's letter
b) the flight surgeon signed the form
c) the aircrew member signed the form
d) actual found DNIF
b) the flight surgeon signed the form
If an aircrew member has allowed his or her physical to expire, the physical availabilty code in ARMS would be

a) E
b) G
c) L
d) M
a) E
The physical availability code D identifies an aircrew member that is

a) disqualified
b) grounded for more than 30 days
c) overdue a flight phyiscal and requires a waiver
d) assigned to DNIF for 30 days or less
d) assigned to DNIF for 30 days or less
A category flying waiver indicates an aircrew member that is

a) restricted from all flying duties
b) required to fly with an instructor
c) temporarily suspended from flying duties
d) restricted to flying a particular type of aircraft
d) restricted to flying a particular type of aircraft
File an AF Form 1042 placing a member in DNIF status in the

a) member's FEF
b) member's FRF
c) member's aircrew training folder
d) temporary suspense file
d) temporary suspense file
When your office receives a form 1042 that removes a member from DNIF,

a) file in the members flight record folder
b) update ARMS and destroy both 1042s
c) file the 1042 that removes the DNIF in the DNIF suspense file with the original form
d) remove the orginial 1042 from the suspense file and file both 1042 in the members flight record folder
b) update ARMS and destroy both 1042s
For how many days can a CEA be grounded before a disqualification action must be taken?

a) 90 days
b) 120 days
c) 180 days
d) 365 days
d) 365 days
When removing an aircrew member from DNIF, the date you use to update ARMS is

a) actual date found DNIF
b) actual date found medically cleared
c) date the flight surgeon signed the form
d) date the aircrew member signed the form
b) actual date found medically cleared
Physiological training is required for

a) all passengers in all military aircraft
b) only rated officers assigned to fly high-G aircraft
c) personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status
d) all passengers in any type of aircraft that will fly below 18,000 feet MSL
c) personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status
CEAs are required to complete the original instruction phase of physiological training before

a) their first aircraft flight
b) being placed on active flying status
c) obtaining medical qualification for flying duties
d) entering training leading to the award of the aeronautical badge
a) their first aircraft flight
MSgt Anaya, an active aircrew member whose physiological training will expire on 31 May, is scheduleed to PCS from Randolph AFB to Eglin AFB on 13 March. When must the member be scheduled for physiological training?

a) Prior to departure
b) Upon arrival at the new duty station
c) Anytime between 1 March and 31 May
d) Since the member is in a PCS status, physiological training is not required
a) Prior to departure
An active rated pilot has a projected retirement date of 1 Feb and his or her physiological training is due to expire on 30 Nov. When (if ever) is the member required to complete refresher training?

a) Prior to the retirement date
b) refresher training is not required
c) within the 3-month period before the expiration date
d) within the 3-month period before the retirement date
b) refresher training is not required
What 2 documents must an aircrew member hand carry to the chamber facility when scheduled for refresher training?

a) the current AF form 1042 and the original AF form 702
b) His or her current AO and a letter or recommendation by the unit commander
c) A letter of recommendation by the unit commander and the current 1042
d) his or her current AO and the original 702
a) the current AF form 1042 and the original AF form 702
The due date for refresher training that was accomplished on 13 June 2003 is

a) 13 June 2006
b) 13 June 2008
c) 30 June 2006
d) 30 June 2008
d) 30 June 2008
Initial centrifuge training is conducted

a) during the member's first year of flying status
b) prior to the end of the member's initial qualification phase
c) after the member completes refresher physiological training
d) during SUPT and JSUNT
d) during SUPT and JSUNT
Refresher centrifuge training is required

a) by aircrew being reassigned to a high-G aircraft following a nonflying assignement
b) within 3 years following the completion of inital centrifuge training
c) prior to departing for a PCS
d) when directed by the member's unit commander
a) by aircrew being reassigned to a high-G aircraft following a nonflying assignement
The final waiver authority for a qualification or refresher centrifuge training is

a) MAJCOM/DO
b) unit commander
c) HQ USAF/XOOT
d) HQ AFMOA/SGPA
a) MAJCOM/DO
Rated officers who are trying to attain qualification as a flight examiner attend

a) graduate flying training
b) formal AETC technical school
c) replacement training unit
d) MAJCOM advanced flying training
a) graduate flying training
specific training needed to qualify an individual for basic aircrew duties in an assigned position without regard to the unit's operations mission defines

a) conitinuation training
b) initial qualification
c) mission qualification training
d) conversion/difference training
b) initial qualification
Aircrew members who have been unqualified over 5 years must complete

a) the appropriate ETCA formal initial qualification course
b) all delinquent items, additional training as directed by the squadron commander, and a flight evaluation
c) the appropriate ETCA academic course, in-unit flying training, and a flight evaluation
d) an application requesting requalification action and forward it to HQ USAF/XOOT for approval
a) the appropriate ETCA formal initial qualification course
Mission ready/combat mission ready flying status identifies an aircrew member who

a) is qualified to perform aircrew duties in the unit aircraft
b) has completed mission qualification training and is able to attain full qualification within 30 days
c) maintains qualification and proficiency to perform the command or unit's operational mission
d) has satisfactorily completed mission qualification training and is qualified in some aspect of the unit mission
c) maintains qualification and proficiency to perform the command or unit's operational mission
Upon completion of the AF Form 8, file the form in the aircrew member's

a) FEF
b) FRF
c) training folder
d) suspense file
a) FEF
What percentage of the annual minimum flying requirements are flight surgeons required to perform in their primary aircraft?

a) 75%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 25%
b) 50%
In order for a flight surgeon to maintain currency, time between flights must not exceed

a) 30 days
b) 45 days
c) 60 days
d) 90 days
c) 60 days
which character(s) of the flight authorization duty code is/are MAJCOM specific

a) The first character
b) the first and second character
c) the second and third characters
d) the third, fourth, and fifth characters
d) the third, fourth, and fifth characters
When building a training program in the ARMS, first navigate to the Training

a) Profile screen
b) Assignment screen
c) Administration screen
d) Accomplishment screen
c) Administration screen
We use a training program code to describe

a) task identifiers
b) the overall trainng plan
c) certain training requirements
d) the length of the training cycle
b) the overall trainng plan
the duration of the training cycle is established by

a) HQ USAF/XOOT
b) MAJCOM directives
c) the unit commander
d) the stan/eval office
b) MAJCOM directives
Which publication would you reference for information on aircraft specific training task IDS?

a) AFI 11-2, MDS-Specific, vol 1
b) AFI 11-202, Aircrew Stan/Eval program, vol 2
c) AFI 11-401, Aviation Management
d) AFI 65-503, Air Force Cost and Planning factors
a) AFI 11-2, MDS-Specific, vol 1
When creating training task IDs in the ARMS, the reference date

a) is used to calculate the due date
b) identifies the start of the training program
c) identifies the begining of the training cycle
d) indicates the date the aircrew member was assigned the training program
a) is used to calculate the due date
When creating training profiles in the ARMS database, which subscreen do you use to enter the frequency, phase period, and volume or duration for each training task?

a) restrictions
b) Dual credits
c) Prerequisites
d) Requirements
d) Requirements
When determining restrictions for training tasks, refer to

a) AFI 11-2, MDS-Specific, vol 1
b) AFI 11-202, Aircrew Stan/Eval program, vol 2
c) AFI 11-401, Aviation Management
d) AFI 65-503, Air Force Cost and Planning factors
a) AFI 11-2, MDS-Specific, vol 1
After you assign training profiles to an aircrew member, audit the transaction by reviewing the

a) training profile assignment list
b) individual training summary
c) training profile master list
d) training update audit list
a) training profile assignment list
An aircrew member who is scheduled to retire on 1 March must complete training requirements through

a) 30 November
b) 31 December
c) 1 January
d) 1 February
a) 30 November
An aircrew member scheduled to PCS on 28 August must complete a proportionate share of training requirements through

a) 1 August
b) 31 July
c) 30 June
d) 31 May
b) 31 July
Which measured area of the SORTS report are aviation resource management personnel required to track

a) Equipment and supplies on hand (S-level)
b) Equipment condition (R-level)
c) Personnel (P-level)
d) Training (T-level)
d) Training (T-level)
When assessing a unit's training level for the SORTS report, the SORTS monitor

a) ensures at least half of the aircrew members performed 100% of their semiannual training requirements
b) compares the number of personnel trained tot he number of personnel authorized or required
c) determines which positions in the unit are filled with personnel of the correct rank structure
d) calculates the number of training missions required to fulfill annual training requirements
b) compares the number of personnel trained tot he number of personnel authorized or required