• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/220

Click to flip

220 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What consists of the fundamental and enduring beliefs and describes the “elemental properties” of air and space power
Basic Doctrine
What doctrine level describes the proper employment of specific weapon systems individually or in concert with other weapon systems to accomplish detailed objectives?
Tactical level doctrine
What describes more detailed organization of air and space forces and applies the principles of basic doctrine to military action?
Operational doctrine
Which doctrines provide focus for developing the mission and tasks that must be executed through tactical doctrine
Basic and operational
Who Deploys, sustains, and manages data, information, and knowledge-sharing services in a fixed and expeditionary environment
3D0X1 – Knowledge Operations Management
Who Supervises and performs cyber systems operations and executes associated information systems support programs, both in garrison and at deployed locations. Performs system administration on Command, Control, Communications, Computer (C4). support identification, reconnaissance and exploitation of vulnerabilities while enhancing capabilities within cyber environments to achieve desired affects
3D0X2 – Cyber Systems Operations
What career field supervises or operates fixed and deployed information technology (IT) resources to monitor, evaluate and maintain systems, policy and procedures to protect clients, networks, data/voice systems and databases from unauthorized activity. Administers and manages the overall Information Assurance (IA) program to include Communications Security (COMSEC), Emissions Security (EMSEC) and Computer Security (COMPUSEC) programs?
3D0X3 – Cyber Surety
Who Deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs standard voice, data, video network, and cryptographic client devices in fixed and deployed environments
3D1X1 – Client Systems
What career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs standard radio frequency wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, ground-based satellite, and encryption transmission devices and intrusion detection systems in a fixed and deployed environment?
3D1X3 – RF Transmission Systems
What career field analyzes requirements and requests frequencies to support terrestrial, aircraft and space systems and coordinate radio, radar, land, and other electromagnetic radiating or receiving requirement
3D1X4 – Spectrum Operations
Who Installs, maintains, and repairs fixed or mobile air traffic control, weather, ground aircraft control and warning radar systems, related radar operator training devices, aircraft identification equipment, remoting systems, video mappers, computerized processors, and communications subsystems.
3D1X5 – Radar
Who Installs, removes, relocates, modifies, deploys, and maintains fixed and mobile meteorological, navigational, and air traffic control ground-to-air radio systems. Accomplishes flight inspection duties for navigational aids.
3D1X6 – Airfield Systems
Who Provides C2 capabilities through installation, maintenance, fault isolation, and reconstitution of fixed cable and wireless distribution systems, local area networks (LANs), and wide area networks (WANs) in support of tactical and strategic operations.
3D1X7 – Cable and Antenna Systems
Who Performs/manages intelligence activities/functions including developing, evaluating, and providing intelligence information
1N0X1– Operations Intelligence
What Intel career field processes, identifies, analyzes, and reports on electromagnetic emissions. Operates complex analysis equipment and systems to exploit signals intelligence production efforts?
1N2X1 – Communication Signals Intelligence
Who Exploits intelligence information to develop global communications structures for targeting, exploitation, and situational awareness. Analyzes intelligence information through research and assessment to determine adversarial actions and intentions. Drafts and disseminates long-term and time-sensitive intelligence reports to consumers worldwide.
1N4X1 – Network Intelligence Analyst
Who Manages or performs duties in space operations; space surveillance, space control, missile warning, satellite command and control (C2), or range operations activities.
1C6X1 – Space Systems Operations
Who Plans, organizes and performs network defense, exploitation and attack in support of joint, national and AF objectives
17DXA: Cyberspace Defense Operations
Who Plans, organizes and performs Net Ops to include establishment, operations, information assurance and defense in support of joint, national and AF objectives.
17DXB: Cyberspace Control Operations
Who Performs duties to develop, sustain, and enhance network capabilities to defend national interests from attack and to create effects in cyberspace to achieve national objectives, will enable net-centric C2 systems to synchronize cross-domain attack operations and de-conflict friendly use of cyberspace. Conduct network attack, network defense, and network exploitation using on-net tools, techniques and procedures to achieve COCOM and national requirements. Will partner with Joint and coalition services to defend net-centric operations. Detect, deny, disrupt, deceive, and mitigate adversarial access to sovereign national networks and systems. operating network and computer-based detection and deception systems; performing technical analysis of networks and systems in support of national level agencies to determine effective defensive maneuvers in case of attack.
1B4X1 – Cyberspace Defense Operations
Which programs objective is to ensure personnel are qualified to perform assigned duties within the Cyberspace mission and ensure compliance with appropriate operational, training, and administrative directives?
The Cyberspace Standardization/ Evaluation program
Which units responsibilities are to establish, plan, direct, coordinate, assess, command & control cyber operations and capabilities in support of Air Force and Joint requirements?
624 Ops Center (OC)
The unit level Stan/Eval program is directed by the who
Group CC
Whose responsibility is to direct evaluations and supplementary evaluations to maintain a quality crew force and Designate squadron Standardization and Evaluation Examiners (SEE)?
Sqaudron CC
Wich Stan/Eval will maintain a tactical focus and perform the operational role in evaluating unit Stan/Eval functions within its chain of command and for attached units?
Numbered Air Forces
(Fill in the BLANKS) SAVs are scheduled to be approximately ____ months before a formal inspection, and should not be conducted within ____ months of a formal inspection
15 & 12
(Fill in the BLANK) A _____-tier rating, based on this evaluation, will be given to each unit and graded under crew performance.
5
What refers to the collecting of information to identify a pattern or predict future events?
Trend Analysis
What is a forum convened at the group level to review and resolve Stan/Eval related issues?
Stan/Eval Board (SEB) 
Who appoints appoint a SEB Program Monitor and Alternate?
Chief of OGV
What is a library consisting of a current read file and publications?
Crew Information File (CIF)
Which training required to gain basic cyberspace warfare knowledge, without regard to a specific unit’s operational mission?
IQT
What training is required to qualify in a Cyberspace assigned operations crew position to perform a particular mission?
MQT
When is a member who has satisfactorily completed mission qualification training and maintains qualification and proficiency in the command or unit mission called?
CMR (Combat Mission Ready)
Upon completion of Initial Qualification Training (IQT) a crew member attains what status?
Basic Cyberspace Training
Who is the authority for revoking and establishing new CMR positions?
HQ AFSPC/A3
In your chain of command who acts as the certifying official and is responsible for determining corrective action or training, any follow-on evaluation requirements, and any crew force management actions for each evaluation and for substandard performance while not under evaluation, and can this authority be delegated?
First Operational Commander - YES
What form is used to decertify a member?
AF Form 4418
Which form do you Document restricted status entry and reason on?
AFSPC Form 91
Which deficiency code describes knowing the requirement, but experienced difficulty because of a skill, ability, or expertise deficiency. May be indicated by failure to meet stated time standards?
DC02-Lack of Proficiency
Which deficiency code describes not associating the impact of various statuses. Could not correlate information.
DC03-Lack of Association: 
Which deficiency code describes a memebr did not know or unable to discern requirement?
DC01-Lack of Knowledge
Which deficiency code describes a members inattention to detail, for example, skipped steps, misread clock, or did not detect status
DC04-Lack of Discipline
The results of evaluations are recorded on what AF Form?
AF Form 4418
Which four individuals record qualification on AF Form 4418 in chronilogical order?
1. Examiner, 2. Reviewing Officer, 3. Final Approving Officer, 4. Examinee
What document is prepared by the President and submitted to Congress by the Executive branch for Congress and provides the higehest level of strategic planning?
Natiional Security Straegies
What document is Developed by the Department of Defense and is is derived from the NSS and is the baseline document for the development of the National Military Strategy (NMS).
National Defense Strategy (NDS
What strategy is used to define strategic guidance for preparing for and conducting operations in both traditional and innovative ways?
National Military Strategy (NMS) 
As the nation’s ranking military officer who publishes the NMS?
Chairman of the Joint Chief of Staff (CJCS)
The NMS describes ways and means to achieve the military objectives and establishes three military objectives that support the NDS. What are the three objectives?
Protect, Prevent, and Prevail
What is defined as, “focused U.S. Government efforts to understand and engage key audiences in order to create, strengthen, or preserve conditions favorable for the advancement of U.S. Government interests, policies, and objectives through the use of coordinated programs, plans, themes, messages, and products synchronized with the actions of all instruments of national power.” ?
Strategic Communication (SC)
FILL IN THE BLANK - COCOM is the command authority over assigned forces vested only in combatant commanders by Title 10, USC or as directed by the President in the Unified Command Plan and cannot be ____________ or __________as set forth in the National Security Act of 1947
Delegated or Transferred
What control normally provides full authority to organize commands and forces and employ those forces, but it does not, in and of itself, include authoritative direction for logistics or matters of administration, discipline, internal organization, or unit training
OPCON
Which control provides the authority to give direction for military operations and to control designated forces (e.g., ground forces, aircraft sorties, missile launches, or satellite payload management) and provides sufficient authority for controlling and directing the application of force or tactical use of combat support assets within the assigned mission or task, but does not provide organizational authority or authoritative direction for administrative and logistic support?
TACON
Which control is the direction or exercise of authority over subordinate or other organizations with respect to administration and support including organization of Service forces, control of resources and equipment, personnel management, unit logistics, individual and unit training?
ADCON
Which publication defines IO as the integrated employment of Electronic Warfare (EW), Computer Network Operations (CNO), Psychological Operations (PSYOP), Military Deception (MILDEC), and Operations Security (OPSEC), in concert with specified supporting and related capabilities, to influence, disrupt, corrupt, or usurp adversarial human and automated decision making while protecting our own?
JP 3-13
Which publication defines IA as those “measures taken to protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authenticity, confidentiality, and non-repudiation.”
Joint Publication 1-02
Which directive establishes the Computer Network Defense (CND) policy, definition, and responsibilities necessary to provide the essential structure and support for CND within DoD information systems and computer networks.
DoD Directive O-8530.1
Which Document defines Network Warfare Operations (NW Ops) as ‘the integrated planning, employment, and assessment of military capabilities to achieve desired effects across the interconnected analog and digital network portion of the battle space.
Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) 2-5
What is the Air Force’s foundational doctrine publication for Air Force operations in, through, and from the cyberspace domain?
Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) 3-12, Cyberspace Operations
What is AFI directs Air Force implementation of the STRATCOM Directive 527-01, Information Operations Condition (INFOCON)?
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-710, Information Operations Condition
What AFI implements Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD) 33-1, Command, Control, Communications, and Computer (C4) Systems, and prescribes the publication and distribution of Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI)?
AFI 33-115, vol. 3, Air Force Network Operating Instructions
What command supports U.S. military operations worldwide through the use of many different types of satellite, launch and cyber operations?
Air Force Space Command (AFSPC)
WHich is the Air Force entity which will present cyber forces to a Joint Forces Commander?
The 24th Air Force
Which AF Networking Tier exercises operational control over the I-NOSCs to ensure the AFNet is capable of conducting, supporting, and advancing coalition, Joint, AF, and interagency network operations and operations on the network. They are responsible for monitoring the health and status of the AF-GIG, reporting status to senior Air Force commanders and joint network operations organizations, and for establishing AF-wide network policies and standards?
Tier 1 - AFNOC (624 OC, 33NWS, and 26 NOG)
Which AF Networking Tier is a centralized customer-facing service for client support and execute AFNetOps command authority, defend the AFNet infrastructure, and manage the functions of security hardware and network monitoring and control?
Tier 2 - INOSC
Which AF Networking Tier is the First level troubleshooting, user support, and trouble ticket initiation begins at one of the Enterprise Service Desk call centers.
Tier # 3
Who directs Air Force Network Defense (NetD) in accordance with Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD) 10-7, Information Operations (IO).
and identifies Air Force network intelligence requirements to USAF/A2?
Air Force Network Operations Commander (AFNetOps/CC)
What squadron operates the AF Networks to include system/network management, information dissemination and delivery assurance in support of the AFNetOps commander and configures and monitors the Air Force service delivery point routers, the points where the Air Force network connects to the larger DOD GIG. This squadron also monitor and respond to anomalies in long-haul communications and information circuits, systems, and application in coordination with DISA, MAJCOMs, and the commercial sector?
26 Network Operations Squadron (NOS)
Which Wing is the primary command element and AFNOC maintenance execution arm for all time compliance network orders (TCNOs) compliance numbers for the AF-GIG at the tactical level?
67 Network Warfare Wing
Which squadron operates at Tier 2 of the AFNetOps hierarchy and is one of two units charged with the management function of the AF-GIG networks?
83 Network Operations Squadron (INOSC East)
Which Squadron is the mirror operational unit to the 83rd and has the same responsibilities except the networks under Space Command, PACAF, AETC, and AMC?
561 Network Operations Squadron (I-NOSC West)
Which unit provides core services will be controlled under AFNetOps?
Enterprise Service Units (ESUs)
Who is responsible for MAJCOM-unique applications and systems that rely on and ride AF networks?
MAJCOM Communications Coordination Center (MCCC)
Who are responsible for base-level touch maintenance, change management, and TCNO implementation?
CFP and CST
Which organization directs the integration of systems within the Air Force network to achieve integrated and interoperable Air Force concepts of operation capabilities and advocates Air Force-wide communications and information planning, resourcing, testing, training, implementation, and sustainment?
Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC)
Which Wing is responsible for creating the information operations advantage for combatant forces through exploring, developing, applying and transitioning counter-information technology, strategy, tactics and data to control the information battle space and providing the world’s best IO leaders?
688th Information Operations Wing (IOW)
What Sq. is Air Force’s lead unit for developing, training, and exercising foundational and advanced IO tactics for IO warfighters and combat Air Force operations and also develop Air Force tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) for information operations including network defense, influence operations, electronic warfare, and IO integration?
23d Information Operations Squadron (IOS)
Which Sq. trains and educates AF personnel in the art and science of planning, executing, and assessing AF and joint information operations; and maintain technically and operationally proficient instructors to provide classroom instruction, mobile training teams, and advanced distributed learning technologies at AF locations worldwide?
39th Information Operations Squadron (39th IOS)
Which Sq. conducts red team assessments of Air Force networks to simulate enemy tactics and order of battle — to assess security controls, procedures, and training?
92d Information Operations Squadron (IOS)
Which Sq. accomplishes telephone network attack and precision message delivery and is expanding its computer network attack capability?
91st Network Warfare Squadron
Which Sq. partners with the NSA to perform the majority of the AF’s network exploitation and attack mission?
315th Network Warfare Squadron (NWS)
Which Intel Wing gains and exploits information as a major component of 24th AF’s global information operations mission?
70th Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance Wing
Which Intel Wing provides timely, tailored intelligence data and capabilities to meet AF needs. As a dynamic worldwide force multiplier, it delivers valuable information to combatants?
480th Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance Wing
Who provides specialized law enforcement and counterintelligence support to AF Information Operation activities worldwide, centered around support to AFNOC resources. AFOSI maintains a presence throughout the AFNOC structure including the NSD (formerly AFCERT) and NCD?
AFOSI
What US Command's mission is to deter attacks on U.S. vital interests, to ensure U.S. freedom of action in space and cyberspace, to deliver integrated kinetic and non-kinetic effects to include nuclear and information operations in support of U.S. Joint Force Commander operations, to synchronize global missile defense plans and operations, to synchronize regional combating of weapons of mass destruction plans, to provide integrated surveillance and reconnaissance allocation recommendations to the SECDEF, and to advocate for capabilities as assigned?
United States Strategic Command (USTRATCOM)
Which JFCC Conducts kinetic (nuclear and conventional) and non-kinetic effects planning. GS manages global force activities to assure allies and to deter and dissuade actions detrimental to the United States and its global interests. Also employs global strike forces in support of combatant commander?
Global Strike (JFCC-GS), Offutt AFB, NE
Which JFCC continuously coordinates, plans, integrates, commands and controls space operations to provide tailored, responsive, local and global effects, and on order, denies the enemy the same, in support of national, USSTRATCOM, and combatant commander objectives?
Space (JFCC-SPACE) Vandenberg AFB, CA
Which JFCC Synchronizes operational-level global missile defense planning, operations support, and the development of missile defense effects for DoD?
Integrated Missile Defense (JFCC-IMD), Schriever AFB, CO
Which JFCC identifies and recommends appropriate resources to meet high priority intelligence requirements?
JFCC — Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (JFCC-ISR), Bolling AFB, Washington
Which JFCC Plans and, when directed, executes operations in and through cyberspace to ensure US and allied freedom of action, denying adversaries’ freedom of action, and enabling effects beyond the cyber domain?
JFCC — Network Warfare (JFCC-NW), Fort Meade, MD
Whose mission is to ‘provide fully capable Special Operations Forces to defend the United States and its interests, and to synchronize planning of global operations against terrorist networks.’ Special Operations Forces (SOF) deploy around the globe in support of geographic COCOM's?
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
Who provides military intelligence to warfighters, defense policymakers and force planners within the Department of Defense and the United States Intelligence Community, in support of U.S. military planning and operations and weapon systems acquisition?
Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
Which centers overall mission is to support field commanders, weapon system developers, and policy makers with scientific and technical all-source intelligence on surface-to-air missiles (SAM), short-range ballistic missiles (SRBM) with ranges less than 1000 kilometers, anti-tank guided missiles (ATGM), missile defense systems, directed-energy weapons (DEW), selected space programs and systems, and relevant command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR)?
Missile and Space Intelligence Center (MSIC)
Which Agencies activities are contained within five separate core mission areas: communications, defensive information operations, combat support computing, joint command and control, and joint interoperability support?
DISA
What were some of the first Social Network applications that were considered part of the Internet?
Usenet, LISTSERV and electronic bulletin boards
Networks based on category of places, experiences, or interests, networks providing connection to friends and family, and networks based on trust and reputations are what kind of internet application?
Social networks
Social networking services (SNS) maintain four types of data to improve the user experience. What are these types of data?
General Information, Personal Networks, Preferences and Important Events
What field of analytics can assist investigators and analysts in mapping links and individuals in a social network?
Social Network Analysis (SNA)
Which of DISA's core mission areas is described information assurance program is broadly focused on designing and deploying proactive protections, deploying attack detection, and on performing information assurance (IA) operations?
Defensive Information Operations (Information Assurance)
Which of DISA's core mission areas provides mainframe and server computer operations, production support, technical services and end user assistance for command and control, combat support, and eBusiness functions across DoD?
Combat Support Computing
Which of DISA's core mission areas is described as the single DoD integrator for joint, coalition, and combined C2 and combat support capabilities?
Joint Command and Control
Which of DISA's core mission areas is described as the use of a common infrastructure and related services wherever possible
Joint Interoperability Support
Who is directly responsible for managing, controlling, and monitoring various networks such as the Internet Protocol (IP) Router Networks, the Defense Switched Network (DSN), the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS), and the Defense Information System Network (DISN)?
DISA Global Network Operation and Security Center (GNOSC)
Which DISA center is directly responsible for managing, controlling, and monitoring various networks such as the Internet Protocol (IP) Router Networks, the Defense Switched Network (DSN), the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS), and the Defense Information System Network (DISN)?
DISA Global Network Operation and Security Center (GNOSC)
WHich Center provides computer-evidence processing, analysis, and diagnosis to support DoD counterintelligence, terrorism, criminal, and fraud investigations?
Defense Cyber Crime Center
Which agency enables Network Warfare operations to defeat terrorists and their organizations at home and abroad, consistent with U.S. laws and the protection of privacy and civil liberties?
National Security Agency
Which organization is responsible for enhancing the security, resiliency, and reliability of the nation’s cyber and communications infrastructure and actively engages the public and private sectors as well as internationally to prevent, and respond to catastrophic incidents that could degrade or overwhelm these strategic assets?
Department of Homeland Security (DHS) – Office of Cybersecurity and Communications (CS&C)
Which organization is responsible for conducting the nation’s largest biennial cyber exercise, Cyber Storm, to evaluate and strengthen cyber preparedness in both the public and private sectors?
Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
What way can you limit exposure from social networks and seperate your identity and your distinct characteristics from adversaries?
Seperate your Persona from social networks.
What emerging international standard is for home networking on existing premises wiring?
G.hn
What G.hn network consists of nodes that share a common wired infrastructure?
domain
What is a Domain Master (DM)?
Provides routing and management functions for portions of the network
What team is charged with providing response support and defense against cyber attacks for the Federal Civil Executive Branch (.gov) and information sharing and collaboration with state and local government, industry and international partners?
United States Computer Emergency Response Team (US-CERT)
Which organization provides a way for citizens, businesses, and other institutions to communicate and coordinate directly with the United States government about cyber security?
United States Computer Emergency Response Team (US-CERT)
What department is responsible for implementing the Department’s national strategies in combating computer and intellectual property crimes worldwide?
Department of Justice (DoJ)
What department conducts network operations and exercises diplomatic ties to support investigation and prosecution of cyber crimes that cross international borders?
Department of State (DoS)
FILL IN THE BLANK - The NIST maintains the National _________ Database (NVD)
Vulnerability
What institute promotes U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve our quality of life?
National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
Which Intel Center mission is to produce integrated, predictive air and space intelligence to enable military operations, force modernization and policymaking. They also provide detailed reports on adversarial capabilities vital to the preparation for and conducting of IO?
National Air and Space Intelligence Center (NASIC)
Which org executes a four-part cyber mission first and foremost to stop those behind the most serious computer intrusions and the spread of malicious code?
FBI
Whose areas of work include software assurance, secure systems, organizational security, coordinated response, and education and training?
CERT Coordination Center (CERT/CC)
Which foundation gathers intelligence on the darker side of the internet and its mission is to improve the security of the Internet by raising awareness of the presence of compromised servers, malicious attackers, and the spread of malware?
Shadowserver Foundation
Which Center provides free warning and threat analysis to thousands of internet users and organizations and they actively work with Internet Service Providers to fight back against malicious attackers
SANS Internet Storm Center (ISC)
What team is an international confederation of computer incident response teams who cooperatively handle computer security incidents and support incident prevention programs?
Forum for Incident Response and Security Teams (FIRST)
Which organization develops and promotes Internet standards in close cooperation with W3C and ISO/IEC standards bodies and with a focus on standards of the TCP and Internet Protocol suite?
Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
What is the degree of advantage possessed by one force over another that permits the conduct of operations in cyberspace at a given time and place without prohibitive interference by the opposing force?
Cyberspace superiority
What is a type of mission or mission classification which integrates offensive and defensive operations to attain and maintain a desired degree of cyber superiority?
Counter-cyber.
Is counter-cyber proactive or reactive?
Both
What are the three different categories of vulnerabilities in Information systems?
hardware, software, and architecture.
Which vulnerability has to do with the design of the network in such a way as to allow an adversary to use it in an attack?
Architecture.
What is the first priority for a cyber defender and is obtained by monitoring network traffic and observing and determining standard as well as unusual information flows or system processing?
Establishing situational awareness
If perpetrators use US infrastructure to commit acts that are illegal according to US Code, they can be prosecuted under...
Title 18, law enforcement
What is used to investigate the activities of a potential or actual adversary and to take defensive actions against the threat’s network infrastructure or mission applications(ie a neutral government's computer)?
Title 50
Which title can permit self defense and even hostile kinetic responses depending on the severity of the original threat behavior. (A counterattack may be in the form of cyberspace activities, physical attack (traditional bombs and bullets), or be a combination of both.)
Title 10
What are cyber capabilities which are leveraged to achieve effects in other domains.
Cross-Domain Operations
What systems offer an ideal method to use cyber operations to achieve cross-domain effects?
Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA)
What systems are employed to control, manage, and monitor large complex systems such as industrial functions, infrastructure functions, and various facilities functions?
Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA)
What publication is the main implementation driver for IA across the DoD?
DoDI 8500.2, Information Assurance Implementation
Which AF Policy Directive responsibilities for the Designated Accrediting Authorities (DAA) for systems and for connection approval authority for the Air Force provisioned portion of the Air Force Global Information Grid (AF-GIG)?
AFPD 33-2, Information Assurance
What term refers to the measures that protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, confidentiality, authentication, and non-repudiation?
Information Assurance
Which AFI provides general direction for implementation of IA and management of IA programs according to Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD) 33-2, Information Assurance Program?
AFI 33-200, Information Assurance (IA) Management
This AFI's objective is to establish/maintain adequate security of Air Force information; supporting information technology (IT) assets is a fundamental management responsibility?
AFI 33-200
What type of security is the protection resulting from all measures designed to deny unauthorized persons information of value that might be derived from intercept and analysis of compromising emanations from other than crypto-equipment and telecommunications systems?
EMISSION SECURITY (EMSEC)
What G.hn network component connects different domains to one another?
interdomain bridges (IDBs)
What kind of applications and hardware are purchased from civilian or commercial vendors in order to increase the effectiveness of network warfare operations?
Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS)
What software has technologies developed by the DoD specifically for military operations.
Government-off-the-shelf (GOTS)
What are some advantages of using Government-off-the-shelf (GOTS)
--Highly interoperable
--Highly redundant and difficult to intercept or jam
--Built with security and authentication
--Use readily available and well-known technologies and systems
Who
- Validates all EMSEC countermeasures reviews.
- Issues Emission Security Information Messages (ESIM).
- Tasks all Air Force EMSEC testing?
Certified TEMPEST Technical Authority (CTTA)
These responsibilities fall under which Agency?
• SCIF TEMPEST issues guidelines for Physical Security standards for SCIF using Director of Central Intelligence Directive (DCID) 6/9
• Physical Security, Information Systems, TEMPEST
• EMSEC assessment done by “owner” of SCIF: DIA or NSA; may request assist from EMSEC Manager
Air Force Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (AFISR) Agency
These responsibilities are whose?
• Manages the Command EMSEC program according to AFSSI 7702 and is the focal point for all MAJCOM EMSEC requirements.
• Implements ESIMS
• Coordinates with affected wings for the EMSEC assessments and countermeasures reviews.
• Advises command program managers of required EMSEC countermeasures.
• Ensures compliance with AFSSI 7702 at each command installation by performing annual command Information Assurance Assessment and Assistance Program (IAAP)
Major Command (MAJCOM) Information Assurance (IA) Office
These responsibilities are whose?
• Conduct and document initial EMSEC assessment and countermeasures reviews of all facilities, inspectable space, and equipment that process classified information.
• Verify the basic assessment data (equipment, location, and classification level) annually. Reassessments and re-certifications are made when a system must be recertified (C&A recertification is required at least every three years), the threat changes, or the classification level of the classified information changes.
• Request EMSEC Test and Evaluations as required.
• Be a point of contact for all EMSEC matters for the base.
Wing EMSEC Manager’s are responsible for the following:
What publication provides guidance for conducting emission security (EMSEC) countermeasures reviews for information systems, communications systems and cryptographic equipment?
AFSSI 7702, Emission Security Countermeasures Reviews
What term refers to measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from information systems of the United States Government related to national security and to ensure the authenticity of such information systems?
COMMUNICATIONS SECURITY (COMSEC)
Which AFI prescribes procedures for securing and protecting information systems, COMSEC equipment, and material. It affects the installation and operation of all equipment used to process classified or sensitive information within the Air Force?
AFI 33-201, Volume 1, Communications Security (COMSEC).
Which AFI outlines responsibilities and clarifies procedures for the COMSEC responsible office (CRO) and COMSEC users to properly secure COMSEC material the local COMSEC Account Manager (CAM) issued to them?
AFI 33-201 V2, Communications Security (COMSEC) User Requirements
Which AFSSI establishes procedures for reporting incidents affecting the security of COMSEC material to the Director, National Security Agency (DIRNSA), AFNIC, MAJCOM, controlling authorities, COMSEC Account Managers, Unit Commanders, COMSEC Responsible Officers (CRO), COMSEC Users, and other authorities in established chains of command?
AFSSI 4212, Reporting COMSEC Deviations
What term refers to measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized per-sons information derived from information systems of the United States Government related to national security and to ensure the authenticity of such information systems?
COMSEC
What is defined as the relationship between the gain of destroying a target and the loss of intelligence gathered from that target?
Intelligence gain/loss
What is defined as the relationship between the intelligence gathered by using a particular technology and the risk of exposing that technology to the adversary?
Technical gain/loss
What is a degree of dominance in the information domain, which allows friendly forces the ability to collect, control, exploit, and defend information without effective opposition?
Information superiority
COMSEC incident evaluation and compromise recovery are two separate, distinct actions. Take compromise recovery actions as soon as possible according to AFI _______?
AFI 33-215
When evaluating a COMSEC incident, what are the three terms to be used?
• Compromise. The material was irretrievably lost or available information clearly proves that the material was made available to an unauthorized person.
• Compromise Cannot Be Ruled Out. Available information indicates that the material could have been made available to an unauthorized person, but there was no clear proof that it was made available.
• No Compromise. Available information clearly proves that the material was not made available to an unauthorized individual.
Complete guidelines for evaluating incidents involving JCS PCM are contained in CJCSI ________?
3260.01B
What term is the measures and controls that ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information technology (IT) system assets and protects IT system, its operating system, peripherals (media and devices), applications, and the information it contains against loss, misuse, unauthorized access, or modification?
COMPUTER SECURITY (COMPUSEC)
Whose role and policy do the below fall under?
• Manages and executes the Air Force IS IA Program
• Makes appropriate decisions to balance security requirements, mission, and resources against the defined or perceived threat.
• Approves exceptions, deviations or, waivers to Air Force IA requirements according to AFI 33-200 and AFI 33-210 for information systems
Designated Accrediting Authority (DAA)
Whose role and policy do the below fall under?
• Implements and oversees COMPUSEC under the base-wide IA program (AFI 33-200)
• Provide assistance and guidance to the Host Wing for COMPUSEC requirements and implementation under the IA program.
• Assists all base organizations and tenants in the development and management of COMPUSEC, as a part of their IA programs.
• Ensures training is provided to organization Information Assurance Managers (IAM) and Information Assurance Officers (IAO) for managing COMPUSEC under their IA program.
• Maintains appointment letters of all organization IAMs and IAOs.
Wing Information Assurance (IA) Office
Whose role and policy do the below fall under?
• Must be a US citizen.
• Manages COMPUSEC as part of an IA program for a large organization or location. Normally this individual resides within the wing IA office.
• Coordinates with wing IA office to ensure all users and IAOs (under their organizational purview) receive COMPUSEC training as a part of their IA training.
• Provides a copy of appointment letter to the wing IA office.
• Ensure IAOs are assigned to organizations to manage COMPUSEC under the base wide IA program.
Information Assurance Manager (IAM)
Whose role and policy do the below fall under?
• Must be a US citizen.
• Supervises COMPUSEC for an organization under the base wide IA program.
• Acts as the single liaison between the organization and IAM or wing IA office for COMPUSEC matters under the IA program.
• Implements COMPUSEC under the IA program to ensure compliance with the provisions of AFSSI 8502, including any MAJCOM or wing procedures. (Note: All actions listed below may not be applicable to each IAO; however, the IAO must ensure applicable actions are being accomplished.
• Ensures users receive training or reminders (on an annual basis) on the security rules of behavior or acceptable use policy for each information system for which they have access. This requirement is above and beyond the initial/refresher Information Protection training.
• Ensures the security rules of behavior or acceptable use policy for each information system is available to all users.
• Ensures users operate, maintain, and dispose of information systems.
Information Assurance Officer (IAO)
TRUE OR FALSE.
The most common type of security incident within the information system environment involves the inadvertent dissemination of classified information through an unclassified E-mail, either within the body of the E-mail or as an attachment.
TRUE
FILL IN THE BLANK.
Personnel discovering an electronic file, document, presentation, etc., containing information classified above the level the system is cleared for, must cease all operations on the affected system immediately and report the security incident to their _____ via secure means.
IAO
FILL IN THE BLANK.
To contain and resolve the security incident, NCCs will coordinate all actions with affected unit security managers, IAOs, and the Information Assurance Manager (IAM), and will implement sanitization procedures and direct the appropriate IAOs to sanitize affected users’ workstations in accordance with___________
AFSSI 8580, Remanence Security
Unless otherwise determined by the information owner, in cases where spillage or a CMI occurred within organization-controlled environment, full sanitization is not required until such time as the affected systems are removed from organizational control. In such cases, immediate actions are required to ensure that the spillage is isolated and contained according to what AFI
AFI 33-138
What term is an operations function or activity and its goals are information superiority and optimal mission effectiveness and reduces the vulnerability of Air Force missions from successful adversary collection and exploitation of critical information?
OPERATIONS SECURITY (OPSEC)
Which AFI provides guidance for all Air Force personnel (military and civilian) and supporting contractors in implementing, maintaining and executing OPSEC programs?
AFI 10-701, Operations Security
What is specific facts about friendly intentions, capabilities, and activities vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively, so as to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment?
Critical Information (CI)
The product of the first step in the OPSEC process is the development of a _____?
Critical Information List or CIL
What is concerned with physical measures designed to safeguard personnel to prevent unauthorized access to equipment, installations, material and documents, and to safeguard them against espionage, sabotage, damage, and theft?
PHYSICAL SECURITY (PHYSEC)
What Authority do these roles belong to?
• Single principal designated by the SOIC to serve as responsible official for SCI security program management.
• Establishes intelligence security control and release programs and oversee Major Command (MAJCOM), Field Operating Agency (FOA), and Direct Reporting Unit (DRU), intelligence security programs.
• Represents the Air Force in national and Department of Defense (DoD) intelligence security forums.
Cognizant Security Authority (CSA)
Whose role is designated by the Director of Central Intelligence (DCI) to ensure proper control and accountability of SCI information within their part of the intelligence community?
Senior Official of the Intelligence Community (SOIC)
Who is the highest ranking military individual charged with direct intelligence missions, functions or responsibilities within a department, agency, component, command or element of an Intelligence Community organization?
Commanders/Senior Intelligence Officers (SIO)
Who is responsible for the security management, operation, implementation, use and dissemination of all types of SCI material within his/her respective organization?
Special Security Officer (SSO)
Who is the focal point within a unit, directorate, or squadron through which all SCI personnel actions are initiated. This person is the sole liaison between the SSO and unit personnel?
Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) Monitor (SCIM)
Compliance with which DCID is mandatory for all SCIF's?
DCID 6/9
Who shall establish procedures for notification that for medical or health reasons (e.g. motorized wheelchairs, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, amplified telephone headsets can be entered in to the SCIF?
SSO or CSSO
What is a competitive advantage, enabled by an ongoing situational awareness, that allows commanders and their forces to make better-informed decisions and implement them faster than their adversaries can react?
Decision superiority
What operations are focused on the information domain, which is composed of a dynamic combination of hardware, software, data, and human components?
Network warfare operations
What's focused on affecting the perceptions and behaviors of leaders, groups, or entire populations?
Influence operations
What is is composed of separate minds and personalities and is influenced by societal norms?
The cognitive domain
What threats include activities by state-sponsored, criminal-sponsored, or ideologically oriented groups with generally long-term objectives?
Structured threats
What is defined as: The ability to create the effects necessary to achieve campaign objectives, whether at the strategic, operational, or tactical levels, is fundamental to the success of the Air Force?
Effects-based Approach
What can be created by a wide variety of military actions occurring at all levels of war?
Strategic effects
The primary focus of IO at the ______ level of war is to deny, degrade, deceive, disrupt, or destroy an adversary’s use of information and information systems relating to C2, intelligence, and other critical information-based processes directly related to conducting military operations
Tactical level
The purpose of _________ is to achieve specific desired effects at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war.
Targeting
Many computer networks
exist in isolation from the Internet and other networks. Additionally, a hard-wired network
without any radio-frequency (RF) connectivity is isolated from most RF intrusion. This concept depicts of what kind of domain?
Non-Continuous Domain
Because many different entities created
cyberspace with different intents and
different needs, it is actually a collection of
smaller segments or systems of systems.
In other words, cyberspace is made up of
many different types of networks with
different functions, interconnectivity
levels, technical complexities,
vulnerabilities, etc. The concept depicts of what kind of domain?
Heterogeneous Domain
Cyberspace supports strategic communications and operational missions, such as air defense. What kind of network is created to defend airspace?
Integrated Air Defense System (IADS)
What are the three key strategic objectives for cyberspace operations?
Establishing the domain,
controlling the domain, and
using the domain.
What key strategy includes efforts to build, sustain, and operate the domain?
Establishing the domain
What key strategy includes offensive and defensive measures taken under the daily workings of NetOps as well as specific actions taken by defensive or offensive cyberspace operations?
Controlling the domain
What are actions taken to create, sustain and defend friendly use of cyberspace?
Defensive Cyberspace Operations (Deter, Detect, and Deny)
What is the employment of network-based capabilities to defend friendly information resident in or transiting through networks against adversary efforts to destroy, disrupt, corrupt, or usurp it?
Network defense (NetD)
Defensive activities typically have three major components. What are they?
active, passive and inherent
What are actions taken to deny, degrade, disrupt, and destroy an adversary‘s cyberspace capabilities in support of US objectives?
Offensive Cyberspace Operations (Deny, Degrade, Disrupt, and Destroy)
What is the employment of network-based capabilities to destroy, disrupt, or corrupt information resident in or transiting through networks?
Network Attack (NetA)
What is defined as the integrated planning, employment, and assessment of military capabilities to achieve desired effects across the electromagnetic domain in support of operational objectives (AFDD 2-5.1)?
Electronic Warfare (EW) operations
What uses traditional kinetic means to physically destroy or otherwise adversely affect a target.
Physical Attack
Who is the lead agency in developing and implementing the Global Information Grid (GIG)?
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
What program was a major DoD net-centric transformational initiative executed by DISA. It created an always-present ―bandwidth-available‖ environment to improve national security intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance, information assurance, as well as command and control?
The Global Information Grid Bandwidth Expansion (GIG-BE)
What includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software (including applications), data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve Information Superiority?
Global Information Grid (GIG)
What are the GIG Components?
--Warrior, Global Applications
--Computing, Communications, Foundation
--Network Operations, and Information Management
What GIG Component operates and defends the GIG?
Network Operations (NetOps) Component
What has evolved into a fully integrated network, designed to be the foundation for net-centric operations?
Combat Information Transport System (CITS)
What component of CITS is the fiber optic, copper, and wireless backbone for carrying information over the Air Force network providing high-speed/broadband/digital connectivity?
Information Transport System
What CITS component provides an integrated, automated personal computer-based management system that automates base-level voice communication administrative functions?
Telecommunication Management System (TMS)
What is the Air Force provisioned portion of the GIG and represents the global connectivity and services in addition to C2 of that connectivity and those services that enable Air Force commanders to achieve information and decision superiority in support of strategic, operational, and tactical objectives?
Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps)
Army‘s portion of the Global Information Grid (GIG) and consists of all globally interconnected, end-to-end Army information capabilities supporting warfighters, policy makers, and support personnel is defined as what?
LandWarNet
What is a Department of the Navy outsourcing program in which an outside contractor provides a vast majority of information technology services for the entire Department, including the United States Navy and Marine Corps?
Navy Marine Corps Intranet (NMCI)
What is the DoD enterprise network containing the elements of network services, enterprise computing and the network backbone, providing network operations and service delivery worldwide?
Defense Information Systems Network (DISN)
DISA has pushed the Services (Air Force, Navy, Marines, and Army) to centralize data processing and storage into central computing centers. What are these called?
Defense Enterprise Computing Centers (DECC)