1A: Dt 8 - 1

Front 1

What type of vaccine uses a live virus that has lost it virulence?

What are some examples of live virus vaccines?

Back 1

Live attenuated:
MMR
Sabine Polio-oral
VZV
Yellow fever
Smallpox
Intranasal flu

Front 2

Which HIV medications cause pancreatitis?

Back 2

Didanosine
Zlacitabine
Stavudine
Ritonavir

Front 3

Which HIV medications cause rash?

Back 3

NNRTIs: nevirapine, delaviridine, efavirenz

Abacavir: hypersens rxn

Front 4

Which HIV medications cause peripheral neuropathy and lactic acidosis?

Back 4

Lactic acidosis: NRTIs but not abacavir

Peripheral neuropathy: didanosine, zalcitabine, stavudine

Front 5

Which vasculitis:
Necrotizing granulomas of lung and necrotizing GN

Back 5

Wegener's

Front 6

Which vasculitis:
Necrotizing immune complex inflammation of visceral/renal vessels

Back 6

Polyarteritis Nodosa

Front 7

Which vasculitis:
Young Asian women

Back 7

Takayasu's

Front 8

Which vasculitis:
Young asthmatics

Back 8

Churg-Strauss

Front 9

Which vasculitis:
Infants and young children; involved coronary arteries

Back 9

Kawasaki Dz

Front 10

Which vasculitis:
Most common vasculitis

Back 10

Temporal

Front 11

Which vasculitis:
Associated with Hepatitis B infection

Back 11

Polyarteritis nodosa

Front 12

Which pathology:
Antiepithelial cell antibodoies

Back 12

Pemphigus

Front 13

Which pathology:
Anti-BM

Back 13

Goodpasture's

Front 14

Which pathology:
Cough, conjunctivitis, coryza, fever

Back 14

Measles

Front 15

Which pathology:
Councilman bodies

Back 15

Apoptotic liver cells seen in viral hepatitis (yellow fever)

Front 16

Which pathology:
Green/yellow pigment just within the corneoscleral margin

Back 16

Wilson's Dz

Front 17

Which pathology:
Anticentromere antibodies

Back 17

CREST

Front 18

Which pathology:
Dementia, eosinophilic inclusions in neurons

Back 18

Lewy Bodies (PD)
Pick bodies (Pick's dz)

Front 19

Which pathology:
Anti-ds-DNA antibodies

Back 19

Renal Dz of Lupus

Front 20

What type of antipsychotic is often the first line of treatment for psychosis?

Which antipsychotic should be reserved for severe, refractory cases because of agranulocytosis?

Back 20

Risperidone = first line (atypical antipsychotic)

Clozapein = agranulocytosis

Front 21

What part of the viral life cycle is blocked by amantadine?

Back 21

Uncoating

Front 22

What part of the viral life cycles is blocked by acyclovir?

Back 22

Nuc synthesis (inhibits viral DNA polymerase)

Front 23

In which causes of vaginal discharge/vaginitis will pH be high?

Back 23

Bacterial vaginosis, trichomonas

Front 24

In which causes of vaginal discharge/vaginitis will pH be low?

Back 24

Physiologic, candida

Front 25

Which antibiotics are safe during pregnancy?

Back 25

PCNs, Cephalosporins
Macrolides
Metronidazole after 1st trimester
Nitrofurantoin

Front 26

Describe phase I drug metabolism.

Back 26

Phase I (cyp450):
Reduction
Oxidation
Hydrolysis
-yields slightly polar, water soluble metabolites

Phase II:

Front 27

Primaquine:
Drug class

Back 27

Anti-malarial

Front 28

Saquinavir:
Drug class

Back 28

Protease inhibitor

Front 29

Betaxolol:
Drug class

Back 29

selective beta blocker (beta-1)

Front 30

Prazosin:
Drug class

Back 30

alpha-1 antagonist

Front 31

Thiopental:
Drug class

Back 31

Barbiturate

Front 32

Tranylcypromine:
Drug class

Back 32

MAOI

Front 33

Sertraline:
Drug class

Back 33

SSRI

Front 34

Temazepam:
Drug class

Back 34

Benzo

Front 35

Desipramine:
Drug class

Back 35

TCA

Front 36

Captopril:
Drug class

Back 36

ACE-i

Front 37

Busulfan:
Drug class

Back 37

Anti-cancer

Front 38

Mortifloxacin:
Drug class

Back 38

Fluroquinolone

Front 39

Zanamivir:
Drug class

Back 39

Anti-viral

Front 40

Miconazole:
Drug class

Back 40

Anti-fungal

Front 41

Drug AE:
Teeth discoloration

Back 41

Tetracycline

Front 42

Drug AE:
Tendonitis

Back 42

Fluroquinolones

Front 43

Drug AE:
Red man syndrome

Back 43

Vanco

Front 44

Drug AE:
Gray baby syndrome

Back 44

Chloramphenicol

Front 45

Drug AE:
Cartilage damage in children

Back 45

Fluoroquinolones

Front 46

Drug AE:
Nephrotoxicity with cephalosporins, ototoxicity with loop diuretics

Back 46

Aminoglycosides (vanco, loop diuretics, cisplatin)

Front 47

Drug AE:
Pseudomembranous colitis

Back 47

Ampicillin, clindamycin

Front 48

Drug of choice for gonorrhea.

Back 48

Ceftriaxone

Front 49

Drug class for Lyme disease or Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

Back 49

Tetracycline

Front 50

Used to treat Giardia Lamblia

Back 50

Metro

Front 51

Can treat MRSA and C. diff colitis

Back 51

Vanco or linezolid

Front 52

Treatment for gram negative rods in patients with renal insufficiency

Back 52

Azteonam

Front 53

Effective against gram positive cocci, gram negative rods, and anaerobes

Back 53

Meropenem
OR
Imipenim with cilastatin

Front 54

Prophylaxis in AIDS patients against PCP pneumonia

Back 54

TMP/SMX
Dapsone
Pentamidine

Front 55

Used as solo prophylaxis against TB

Back 55

Isoniazid

Front 56

Developmental milestones:
Birth-15m

Back 56

Birth-3mo: Rooting reflex, orients to voice

3mo: holds head up, social smile

7-9mo: sits alone, crawls; stranger anxiety

15mo: Walks, Babinski disappears; few words, separation anxiety

Front 57

Developmental milestones:
12-36m

Back 57

12-24: Climbs stairs, stacks 3 blocks at 1 year, 6 blocks at 2 years (number of blockst stacked = age in years x 3); object permanence; 200 words and 2-word sentences at age 2

24-36mo: core gender identity, parallel play

Front 58

Developmental milestones:
30m-4y

Back 58

30-36-mo: Stacks 9 blocks; toilet training at 3 (pee at 3)

3 years: Rides tricycle (3 wheels), copies line of circle drawing; 900 words and complete sentences

4 years: simple drawings (stick figure), hops on 1 foot; cooperative play, imaginary friends, grooms self, brushes teeth, buttons and zips

Front 59

Dysplasia vs Anaplasia

Back 59

Dysplasia--abnl growth with loss of cell orientation, shape, size; commonly preneoplastic

Anaplasia: abnl cells lacking differentiation, like primitive cells of same tissue; little or no resemblance to tissue of origin

Front 60

Histologic features of anaplastic cells

Back 60

High nucleus:cytoplasm ratio
Prominent nucleoli
Nuclear chromatin clumping
Many mitotic figures

Front 61

Vimentin stain:
Utility in oncology

Back 61

Stains sarcomas (CT)

Front 62

Desmin stain:
Utility in oncology

Back 62

Identifies rhabdomyosarcome or leiomyosarcoma (muscle)

Front 63

Cytokeritin stain:
Utility in oncology

Back 63

Identifies carcinomas (epithelial cells)

Front 64

Neurofilament stain:
Utility in oncology

Back 64

Identifies adrenal neuroblastoma and primitive neuroectodermal tumor (stains neurons)

(more adrenal than CNS)

Front 65

Adenoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type

Back 65

Benign epithelial tumor

Front 66

Papilloma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type

Back 66

Benign epithelial tumor

Front 67

Adenocarcinoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type

Back 67

Malignant epithelial tumor

Front 68

Papillary carcinoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type

Back 68

Malignant epithelial tumor

Front 69

Hemangioma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type

Back 69

Benign BV tumor

Front 70

Angiosarcoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type

Back 70

Malignant BV tumor

Front 71

Leiomyoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type

Back 71

Benign smooth muscle tumor

Front 72

Leiomyosarcoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type

Back 72

Malignant smooth muscle tumor

Front 73

Rhabdomyoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type

Back 73

Benign skeletal muscle tumor

Front 74

Rhabdomyosarcoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type

Back 74

Malignant skeletal muscle tumor

Front 75

Mature vs immature teratoma:
General
Differences in men/women

Back 75

Mature teratoma in women = benign tumor of >1 cell type
Mature teratoma in men = malignant tumor of >1 cell type

Immature teratoma = malignant tumor of >1 cell type

Front 76

Down Syndrome:
Associated neoplasms

Back 76

ALL (we ALL fall Down)
AML

Front 77

Xeroderma pigmentosum:
Associated neoplasms

Back 77

Melanoma, BCC, squamous cell carcinoma of skin

Front 78

Tuberous sclerosis:
Associated neoplasms

Back 78

Astrocytoma
Angiomyolipoma
Cardiac rabdomyoma

Front 79

Actinic keratosis:
Associated neoplasms

Back 79

Squamous cell carcinoma

Front 80

Paget's Disease of Bone:
Associated neoplasms

Back 80

secondary osteosarcoma dn fibrosarcoma

Front 81

Acanthosis nigricans:
Associated neoplasms

Back 81

(acanthosis nigricans = hyperpigmentation and epidermal thickening along nape, armpit)

Visceral malignancy (stomach, lung, breast, uterus)

Front 82

Achalasia:
Associated neoplasms

Back 82

Precursor to squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus

Front 83

Sjogren's Syndrome:
Associated neoplasms

Back 83

B cell lymphoma

Front 84

Ras oncogene:
associated neoplasms (be specific)

Back 84

K-RAS: Kolon, panKreatic, lung

H-RAS: bladder, kidney (Hematuria)

N-RAS: melanomas, heme malignancies

Front 85

abl:
associated neoplasms

Back 85

CML

Front 86

c-myc:
Associated neoplasms

Back 86

Burkitt's lymphoma (gain of function mutation)

Front 87

bcl-2:
Associated neoplasms

Back 87

follicular and undiff lymphomas

(gain of function mutation)

Front 88

erb-B2:
Associated neoplasms

Back 88

Breast, ovarian, gastric carcinomas

(gain of function mutation)

Front 89

ret:
Associated neoplasms

Back 89

MEN II, III

(gain of function mutation)

Front 90

c-kit:
Associated neoplasms

Back 90

GIST--gastrointestinal stromal tumor

(gain of function mutation)

Front 91

Retinoblastoma:
Sporadic vs Heritable Pathophys

Back 91

Heritable: inherit one hit to Rb gene (loss of function), and acquire second hit

Sporadic: acquire both hits

Front 92

BRCA1 vs BRCA2

Back 92

BRCA1: breast, ovarian cancer
BRCA2: breast cancer

Front 93

p53:
Role
Associated neoplasms

Back 93

Involved at G1/S checkpoint and G2/M checkpoint;

Associated with most human cancers

Front 94

APC:
Associated neoplasms

Back 94

Familial adenomatous polyposis

Front 95

CEA antigen:
Clinical utility

Back 95

GI tumor marker--colorectal, pancreatic, gastric; also breast and thyroid medullary carcinomas

Front 96

alpha-fetoprotein:
Clinical utility

Back 96

HCC
Yolk sac tumor of testis (nonseminomatous germ cell)

Front 97

beta-hCG:
Clinical utility

Back 97

Hydatidiform moles
Choriocarcinomas

Front 98

Alkaline phosphatase:
Clinical utility

Back 98

Mets to bone, obstructive biliary dz, Paget's dz of bone

Front 99

Tartate-resistant acid phosphatase:
Clinical utility

Back 99

TRP the hairy animal--Hairy cell leukemia (B cell neoplasm)

Front 100

EBV:
Associated neoplasm

Back 100

Burkitt's lymphoma

Front 101

HHV-8:
Associated neoplasm

Back 101

Kaposi sarcoma

Front 102

Strep bovis:
Associated neoplasm

Back 102

Colon cancer

Front 103

Schistosoma hematobium:
Associated neoplasm

Back 103

Bladder cancer

Front 104

What neoplasm can result in Cushing's syndrome?

Back 104

Small cel lung carcinoma

Front 105

What neoplasm can result in SIADH?

Back 105

Small cell lung carcinoma

Front 106

What neoplasm can result in hypercalcemia?

Back 106

Hypercalcemia via a PTH-related peptide; squamous cell lung carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, breast carcinoma

Front 107

What neoplasm can result in polycythemia?

Back 107

Renall cell carcinoma
Hemngioblastoma
HCC
Pheochromocytoma

via EPO obvs

Front 108

What neoplasm can result in Lambert-Eaton syndrome (muscle weakness)?

Back 108

Thymoma, small cell lung cancer; bc of ab's against presynaptic Ca2+ channels at N/M Jn

Front 109

What neoplasms can result in gout?

Back 109

Leukemia, lymphoma result in hyperuricemia due to excess nucleic acid turnover (cytotoxic tx)

Front 110

Associated neoplasms

Back 110

Psamomma body (rings on a tree)
PSaMMoma
Papillary (thyroid) adenoca
Serous cystadenoca of ovary
Meningioma
Malignant mesothelioma

Front 111

When is ESR elevated?

Back 111

Infections
Inflammn
Cancer
Pregnancy
SLE

Front 112

When is ESR decreased?

Back 112

Sickle cell (altered shape)
Polycythemia (too many)
CHF (unknown)

Front 113

What cancers metastasize to brain?

Back 113

Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Glia:
Lung
Breast
Skin (melanoma)
Kidney (Renal CC)
GI

50% of brain tumors are from mets!

Front 114

What cancers metastasize to liver?

Back 114

Cancer Sometimes Penetrates Benign Liver

Colon > Stomach > Pancreas > Breast > Lung

Front 115

What cancer metastasize to bone?
Which are lytic?
Blastic?

Back 115

PT Barnum Loves Kids
Prostate (blastic)
Thyroid, Testes
Breast (lytic and blastic)
Lung (Lytic)
Kidney

Front 116

What drugs are used to treat testicular cancer?

Back 116

Eradicate Ball Caner

Etoposide
Bleomycin
Cisplatin

Front 117

Associated neoplasms:
Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Back 117

Lymphoma

Front 118

Associated neoplasms:
Down Syndrome

Back 118

ALL, AML

Front 119

Associated neoplasms:
Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

Back 119

Squamous cell of esophagus

Front 120

Associated neoplasms:
Tuberous Sclerosis

Back 120

Cardiac rhabdomyoma

Front 121

Associated neoplasms:
Ataxis telangectasia

Back 121

Leukemia, lymphoma

Front 122

Associated neoplasms:
Paget's disease of bone

Back 122

Osteosarcoma, fibrosarcoma

Front 123

Among men and women, compare the most common cancers and the most common cancers causing mortality.

Back 123

Men:
Common: Prostate, lung, colorectal
Mortality: Lung, prostate, colorectal

Common (Women): Breast, lung, CRC
Mortality: Lung, breast, CRC

Front 124

Associated neoplasms:
Rb

Back 124

Retinoblastoma
Osteosarcoma

Front 125

Associated neoplasms:
DPC

Back 125

Pancreatic ca

Front 126

Associated neoplasms:
p53

Back 126

Almost all ca's

Front 127

Associated neoplasms:
APC

Back 127

CRC

Front 128

Associated neoplasms:
WT1

Back 128

Wilms Tumor

Front 129

Associated neoplasms:
BRCA1 and BRCA2

Back 129

Breast, Ovarian

Front 130

Associated neoplasms:
Nitrosamines

Back 130

Esophageal, stomach ca

Front 131

Associated tumor marker:
Colon Cancer

Back 131

CEA

Front 132

Associated tumor marker:
Astrocytoma

Back 132

S100

Front 133

What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia?

What cancers may cause it?

Back 133

Most common cause: primary hyperparathy

Front 134

Associated neoplasm:
ACTH-->Cushing's

Back 134

Small cell lung ca

Front 135

Associated tumor marker:
EPO-->polycythemia

Back 135

RCC
Hemangioblastoma

Front 136

Associated tumor marker:
ADH-->SIADH

Back 136

Small cell lung ca

Front 137

Associated neoplasms:
Asbestos

Back 137

Mesothelioma
Bronchogenic ca

Front 138

Associated neoplasms:
Naphthalene

Back 138

Bladder transitional cell cancer

Front 139

Associated neoplasms:
Arsenic

Back 139

Squamous cellc ancer of skin

Front 140

Associated neoplasms:
EBV

Back 140

Burkitt's

Front 141

Associated neoplasms:
HPV

Back 141

Cervical, vulvar, anal, genital ca

Front 142

Associated neoplasms:
Schistoma haematobium

Back 142

Squamous cell ca of bladder

Front 143

Associated tumor marker:
Hepatocellular carcinoma

Back 143

AFP

Front 144

Associated tumor marker:
Ovarian cancer

Back 144

CA125

Front 145

Associated tumor marker:
Pancreatic cancer

Back 145

CA99
CEA

Front 146

Associated tumor marker:
Melanoma

Back 146

S100

Front 147

Describe the events of the cell cycle and where cancer drugs act.

Back 147

G1: synthesis of components needed for DNA synthesis

S phase: DNA synthesis; antimetabolites work here; as does etoposide

G2: synthesis of component needed for mitosis; bleomycin and etoposide work here

M: mitosis; vinca alkaloids and and and taxols work here

Front 148

What rapidly growing cells are targeted by cancer drugs?

Back 148

Cancer
Hair follicles
GI tract
Bone Marrow

Front 149

Methotrexate:
MOA
Use
AE

Back 149

Folic acid analog that inhibits DHF reductase (dec'd DNA and protein synthesis)

Use:
Leukemias, lymphomas, choriocarcinoma, sarcomas
ABORTION, ECTOPIC PREGNANCY, RA

AE:
Myelosuppression reversible with leucovorin (FOLINIC ACID) "rescue"

Front 150

Which antibiotic shares its MOA with methotrexate?

Back 150

Trimethoprim

Front 151

5-flurouracil:
MOA
Use

Back 151

Pyrimidine analog converted to 5F-dUMP-->complexes with folic acid; inhibits THYMIDYLATE SYNTHASE (dec'd dTMP-->dec'd DNA and protein synthesis)

Use: Colon cancer, BCC, synergy with MTX

Front 152

6-mercaptopurine:
MOA
Use

Back 152

Purine analog-->dec'd de novo purine synthesis; act'd by HGPRTase

Use in leukemias, lymphomas (not CLL or Hodgkin's)

Front 153

This drug exhibits increased toxicity with allopurinol.

Back 153

6-mercaptopurine

Front 154

Cytarabine:
MOA
Use

Back 154

Pyrimidine antagonist-->inhibition of DNA polymerase

AML, ALL

Front 155

Dactinomycin:
MOA
Use

Back 155

Intercalates in DNA; use in pediatric tumors (dACT; children ACT out)--Wilms', Eqing's, rhabdomyosarcoma

Front 156

Doxorubicin:
MOA
AE

Back 156

Generates free radials

AE: cardiotoxic

Front 157

Daunorubucin:
MOA
AE

Back 157

Generates free radicals to induce breaks in DNA

Cardiotoxic

Front 158

Bleomycin:
MOA
Use
AE

Back 158

Induces free radical formation-->breaks in DNA strands

Use in testicular cancer

Pulm fibrosis

Front 159

Etoposide:
MOA
Use

Back 159

Inhibits topoisomerase II-->inc'd DNA degradation

Use in testicular cancer

Front 160

Cyclophosphamide:
MOA
AE

Back 160

Alkylating agent; interstrands DNA at guanine, must be act'd by liver

AE: Hemorrhagic cystitis

Front 161

Nitrosoureas:
Suffix
MOA
Use
AE

Back 161

Nitro on your mustang-->ends in mustine

Alkylating agents

Use: Cross BBB to tx brain tumors

AE: CNS tox

Front 162

Busulfan:
MOA
AE

Back 162

Alkylates DNA

Pulm fibrosis

Front 163

Vincristine:
MOA

Back 163

Block polymerization of MTs

Front 164

Vinblastin:
MOA

Back 164

Block polymerization of MTs

Front 165

Palitaxel:
MOA

Back 165

Palitaxel drug class end in -TAXols

Hyperstabilize polymerized MTs in M-phase so mitotic spindle can't break down

TAXing to stay polymerized!

Front 166

What drugs interfere with microtubules?

Back 166

Vincristine
Vinblastine
Taxols
Bendazoles (antihelminthic)
Griseofulvin
Colchicine

Front 167

Cisplatin:
MOA
Use
AE

Back 167

Cross-link DNA

Testicular, bladder ca

Nephrotoxic, acoustic nerve damage

Front 168

Hydroxyurea:
MOA

Back 168

Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase-->dec'd DNA synthesis

Front 169

Trastuzumab:
MOA
Use

Back 169

MAB x HER2 (erb-B2) positive breast cancer

Cardiotoxic

Front 170

Imatinib:
MOA
Use

Back 170

bcr-abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor

Use in CML, GIST

Front 171

Rituximab:
MOA
Use

Back 171

MAB x CD20 for NHL (most B-cell neoplasms)

Front 172

Which anticancer drug:
Forms complex between topoisomerase II and DNA

Back 172

Etoposide

Front 173

Which anticancer drug:
Aklylates DNA, AE: pulm fibrosis

Back 173

Busulfan

Front 174

Which anticancer drug:
Fragments DNA, AE: pulm fibrosis

Back 174

Bleomycin

Front 175

Which anticancer drug:
Blocks purine synthesis, metabolized by xanthine oxidase

Back 175

6-MC

Front 176

Which anticancer drug:
Cross-links DNA
Nephrotoxic, ototoxic

Back 176

Cisplatin, carboplatin

Front 177

Which anticancer drug:
Nitrogen mustart, alkylates DNA

Back 177

cyclophosphamide

Front 178

Which anticancer drug:
Folic acid analog that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

Back 178

MTX

Front 179

Which anticancer drug:
Prevents tubulin disassembly

Back 179

Taxols

Front 180

Which anticancer drug:
Intercalates DNA, produces oxygen free radicals, cardiotoxic

Back 180

Doxarubacin, daunarubacin

Front 181

Which anticancer drug:
DNA alkylating agents used in brain cancer

Back 181

Nitrosureas

Front 182

Which anticancer drug:
Prevents tubulin assembly

Back 182

Vincristine, vinblastine

Front 183

Which anticancer drug:
Inhibits thymidylate synthase-->dec'd nucleotide synthesis

Back 183

5-FU

Front 184

Which anticancer drug:
SERM--blocks estrogen binding to ER+ cells

Back 184

Tamoxifen, raloxifene

Front 185

Which anticancer drug:
MOA similar to acyclovir and foscarnet

Back 185

Citeravine

Front 186

Which anticancer drug:
MOA similar to fluoroquinolones

Back 186

Etoposide

Front 187

Which anticancer drug:
MOA similar to trimethoprim

Back 187

MTX

Front 188

Which anticancer drug:
MAB against HER-2

Back 188

Trastuzumab

Front 189

Which anticancer drug:
Free radical induced DNA strand breakage

Back 189

Bleomycin, -rubacins

Front 190

Which anticancer drug:
Inhibitor of PRPP synthetase

Back 190

6-MC

Front 191

Which anticancer drug:
Reversible with leucovorin

Back 191

MTX

Front 192

Which anticancer drug:
Treatment for choriocarcinoma

Back 192

MTX
Vinristine, vinblastine

Front 193

Which anticancer drug:
Treatment for AML

Back 193

Cyterabine

Front 194

Which anticancer drug:
Treatment for CML

Back 194

Busulfan
Imatinib

Front 195

Which anticancer drug:
Prevents breast cancer

Back 195

Tamoxifen, raloxifen

Front 196

Which anticancer drug:
Applied topically for AKs and BCCs

Back 196

5-FU

Front 197

Which anticancer drug:
Treatment for childhood tumors

Back 197

Dactinomycin

Front 198

Which anticancer drug:
Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

Back 198

Hydroxyurea

Front 199

Which anticancer drug:
AE: hemorrhagic cystitis

Back 199

Cyclophosphamide

Front 200

Which anticancer drug:
Ab against Philadelphia chromosome

Back 200

Imatinib

Front 201

Which anticancer drug:
What are the potential side effects of prednisone?

Back 201

Cuhsing's
Immunosuppression
Cataracts
Acne
Peptic ulcers
Insomnia

Front 202

Which thalamic nucleus:
Somatosensory from body

Back 202

VPL

Front 203

Which thalamic nucleus:
Communicates with prefrontal cortex

Back 203

MD (medial dorsal)

Front 204

Which thalamic nucleus:
Cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia-->motor cortex

Back 204

VL (ventral lateral)

Front 205

Which thalamic nucleus:
Trigemniothalamic and taste pathways to somatosensory cortex

Back 205

VPM

Front 206

Which thalamic nucleus:
Retina-->occipital lobe

Back 206

Lateral geniculate body

Front 207

Which thalamic nucleus:
Basal ganglia-->PFC, premotor, and orbital cortices

Back 207

Ventral Anterior (VA)

Front 208

Which thalamic nucleus:
Mamillothalamic tract-->cingulate gyrus

Back 208

Anterior nucleus

Front 209

Which thalamic nucleus:
Integration of visual, auditory, and somesthenic input

Back 209

Pulvinar nucleus

Front 210

Which thalamic nucleus:
Memory loss results if destroyed

Back 210

Medial Dorsal nucleus

Front 211

Which thalamic nucleus:
Auditory info of inferior colliculus-->primary auditory cortex

Back 211

Medial geniculate body