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211 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What type of vaccine uses a live virus that has lost it virulence?

What are some examples of live virus vaccines?
Live attenuated:
MMR
Sabine Polio-oral
VZV
Yellow fever
Smallpox
Intranasal flu
Which HIV medications cause pancreatitis?
Didanosine
Zlacitabine
Stavudine
Ritonavir
Which HIV medications cause rash?
NNRTIs: nevirapine, delaviridine, efavirenz

Abacavir: hypersens rxn
Which HIV medications cause peripheral neuropathy and lactic acidosis?
Lactic acidosis: NRTIs but not abacavir

Peripheral neuropathy: didanosine, zalcitabine, stavudine
Which vasculitis:
Necrotizing granulomas of lung and necrotizing GN
Wegener's
Which vasculitis:
Necrotizing immune complex inflammation of visceral/renal vessels
Polyarteritis Nodosa
Which vasculitis:
Young Asian women
Takayasu's
Which vasculitis:
Young asthmatics
Churg-Strauss
Which vasculitis:
Infants and young children; involved coronary arteries
Kawasaki Dz
Which vasculitis:
Most common vasculitis
Temporal
Which vasculitis:
Associated with Hepatitis B infection
Polyarteritis nodosa
Which pathology:
Antiepithelial cell antibodoies
Pemphigus
Which pathology:
Anti-BM
Goodpasture's
Which pathology:
Cough, conjunctivitis, coryza, fever
Measles
Which pathology:
Councilman bodies
Apoptotic liver cells seen in viral hepatitis (yellow fever)
Which pathology:
Green/yellow pigment just within the corneoscleral margin
Wilson's Dz
Which pathology:
Anticentromere antibodies
CREST
Which pathology:
Dementia, eosinophilic inclusions in neurons
Lewy Bodies (PD)
Pick bodies (Pick's dz)
Which pathology:
Anti-ds-DNA antibodies
Renal Dz of Lupus
What type of antipsychotic is often the first line of treatment for psychosis?

Which antipsychotic should be reserved for severe, refractory cases because of agranulocytosis?
Risperidone = first line (atypical antipsychotic)

Clozapein = agranulocytosis
What part of the viral life cycle is blocked by amantadine?
Uncoating
What part of the viral life cycles is blocked by acyclovir?
Nuc synthesis (inhibits viral DNA polymerase)
In which causes of vaginal discharge/vaginitis will pH be high?
Bacterial vaginosis, trichomonas
In which causes of vaginal discharge/vaginitis will pH be low?
Physiologic, candida
Which antibiotics are safe during pregnancy?
PCNs, Cephalosporins
Macrolides
Metronidazole after 1st trimester
Nitrofurantoin
Describe phase I drug metabolism.
Phase I (cyp450):
Reduction
Oxidation
Hydrolysis
-yields slightly polar, water soluble metabolites

Phase II:
Primaquine:
Drug class
Anti-malarial
Saquinavir:
Drug class
Protease inhibitor
Betaxolol:
Drug class
selective beta blocker (beta-1)
Prazosin:
Drug class
alpha-1 antagonist
Thiopental:
Drug class
Barbiturate
Tranylcypromine:
Drug class
MAOI
Sertraline:
Drug class
SSRI
Temazepam:
Drug class
Benzo
Desipramine:
Drug class
TCA
Captopril:
Drug class
ACE-i
Busulfan:
Drug class
Anti-cancer
Mortifloxacin:
Drug class
Fluroquinolone
Zanamivir:
Drug class
Anti-viral
Miconazole:
Drug class
Anti-fungal
Drug AE:
Teeth discoloration
Tetracycline
Drug AE:
Tendonitis
Fluroquinolones
Drug AE:
Red man syndrome
Vanco
Drug AE:
Gray baby syndrome
Chloramphenicol
Drug AE:
Cartilage damage in children
Fluoroquinolones
Drug AE:
Nephrotoxicity with cephalosporins, ototoxicity with loop diuretics
Aminoglycosides (vanco, loop diuretics, cisplatin)
Drug AE:
Pseudomembranous colitis
Ampicillin, clindamycin
Drug of choice for gonorrhea.
Ceftriaxone
Drug class for Lyme disease or Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Tetracycline
Used to treat Giardia Lamblia
Metro
Can treat MRSA and C. diff colitis
Vanco or linezolid
Treatment for gram negative rods in patients with renal insufficiency
Azteonam
Effective against gram positive cocci, gram negative rods, and anaerobes
Meropenem
OR
Imipenim with cilastatin
Prophylaxis in AIDS patients against PCP pneumonia
TMP/SMX
Dapsone
Pentamidine
Used as solo prophylaxis against TB
Isoniazid
Developmental milestones:
Birth-15m
Birth-3mo: Rooting reflex, orients to voice

3mo: holds head up, social smile

7-9mo: sits alone, crawls; stranger anxiety

15mo: Walks, Babinski disappears; few words, separation anxiety
Developmental milestones:
12-36m
12-24: Climbs stairs, stacks 3 blocks at 1 year, 6 blocks at 2 years (number of blockst stacked = age in years x 3); object permanence; 200 words and 2-word sentences at age 2

24-36mo: core gender identity, parallel play
Developmental milestones:
30m-4y
30-36-mo: Stacks 9 blocks; toilet training at 3 (pee at 3)

3 years: Rides tricycle (3 wheels), copies line of circle drawing; 900 words and complete sentences

4 years: simple drawings (stick figure), hops on 1 foot; cooperative play, imaginary friends, grooms self, brushes teeth, buttons and zips
Dysplasia vs Anaplasia
Dysplasia--abnl growth with loss of cell orientation, shape, size; commonly preneoplastic

Anaplasia: abnl cells lacking differentiation, like primitive cells of same tissue; little or no resemblance to tissue of origin
Histologic features of anaplastic cells
High nucleus:cytoplasm ratio
Prominent nucleoli
Nuclear chromatin clumping
Many mitotic figures
Vimentin stain:
Utility in oncology
Stains sarcomas (CT)
Desmin stain:
Utility in oncology
Identifies rhabdomyosarcome or leiomyosarcoma (muscle)
Cytokeritin stain:
Utility in oncology
Identifies carcinomas (epithelial cells)
Neurofilament stain:
Utility in oncology
Identifies adrenal neuroblastoma and primitive neuroectodermal tumor (stains neurons)

(more adrenal than CNS)
Adenoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type
Benign epithelial tumor
Papilloma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type
Benign epithelial tumor
Adenocarcinoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type
Malignant epithelial tumor
Papillary carcinoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type
Malignant epithelial tumor
Hemangioma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type
Benign BV tumor
Angiosarcoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type
Malignant BV tumor
Leiomyoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type
Benign smooth muscle tumor
Leiomyosarcoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type
Malignant smooth muscle tumor
Rhabdomyoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type
Benign skeletal muscle tumor
Rhabdomyosarcoma:
Benign/Malignant
Tissue type
Malignant skeletal muscle tumor
Mature vs immature teratoma:
General
Differences in men/women
Mature teratoma in women = benign tumor of >1 cell type
Mature teratoma in men = malignant tumor of >1 cell type

Immature teratoma = malignant tumor of >1 cell type
Down Syndrome:
Associated neoplasms
ALL (we ALL fall Down)
AML
Xeroderma pigmentosum:
Associated neoplasms
Melanoma, BCC, squamous cell carcinoma of skin
Tuberous sclerosis:
Associated neoplasms
Astrocytoma
Angiomyolipoma
Cardiac rabdomyoma
Actinic keratosis:
Associated neoplasms
Squamous cell carcinoma
Paget's Disease of Bone:
Associated neoplasms
secondary osteosarcoma dn fibrosarcoma
Acanthosis nigricans:
Associated neoplasms
(acanthosis nigricans = hyperpigmentation and epidermal thickening along nape, armpit)

Visceral malignancy (stomach, lung, breast, uterus)
Achalasia:
Associated neoplasms
Precursor to squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus
Sjogren's Syndrome:
Associated neoplasms
B cell lymphoma
Ras oncogene:
associated neoplasms (be specific)
K-RAS: Kolon, panKreatic, lung

H-RAS: bladder, kidney (Hematuria)

N-RAS: melanomas, heme malignancies
abl:
associated neoplasms
CML
c-myc:
Associated neoplasms
Burkitt's lymphoma (gain of function mutation)
bcl-2:
Associated neoplasms
follicular and undiff lymphomas

(gain of function mutation)
erb-B2:
Associated neoplasms
Breast, ovarian, gastric carcinomas

(gain of function mutation)
ret:
Associated neoplasms
MEN II, III

(gain of function mutation)
c-kit:
Associated neoplasms
GIST--gastrointestinal stromal tumor

(gain of function mutation)
Retinoblastoma:
Sporadic vs Heritable Pathophys
Heritable: inherit one hit to Rb gene (loss of function), and acquire second hit

Sporadic: acquire both hits
BRCA1 vs BRCA2
BRCA1: breast, ovarian cancer
BRCA2: breast cancer
p53:
Role
Associated neoplasms
Involved at G1/S checkpoint and G2/M checkpoint;

Associated with most human cancers
APC:
Associated neoplasms
Familial adenomatous polyposis
CEA antigen:
Clinical utility
GI tumor marker--colorectal, pancreatic, gastric; also breast and thyroid medullary carcinomas
alpha-fetoprotein:
Clinical utility
HCC
Yolk sac tumor of testis (nonseminomatous germ cell)
beta-hCG:
Clinical utility
Hydatidiform moles
Choriocarcinomas
Alkaline phosphatase:
Clinical utility
Mets to bone, obstructive biliary dz, Paget's dz of bone
Tartate-resistant acid phosphatase:
Clinical utility
TRP the hairy animal--Hairy cell leukemia (B cell neoplasm)
EBV:
Associated neoplasm
Burkitt's lymphoma
HHV-8:
Associated neoplasm
Kaposi sarcoma
Strep bovis:
Associated neoplasm
Colon cancer
Schistosoma hematobium:
Associated neoplasm
Bladder cancer
What neoplasm can result in Cushing's syndrome?
Small cel lung carcinoma
What neoplasm can result in SIADH?
Small cell lung carcinoma
What neoplasm can result in hypercalcemia?
Hypercalcemia via a PTH-related peptide; squamous cell lung carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, breast carcinoma
What neoplasm can result in polycythemia?
Renall cell carcinoma
Hemngioblastoma
HCC
Pheochromocytoma

via EPO obvs
What neoplasm can result in Lambert-Eaton syndrome (muscle weakness)?
Thymoma, small cell lung cancer; bc of ab's against presynaptic Ca2+ channels at N/M Jn
What neoplasms can result in gout?
Leukemia, lymphoma result in hyperuricemia due to excess nucleic acid turnover (cytotoxic tx)
Associated neoplasms
Psamomma body (rings on a tree)
PSaMMoma
Papillary (thyroid) adenoca
Serous cystadenoca of ovary
Meningioma
Malignant mesothelioma
When is ESR elevated?
Infections
Inflammn
Cancer
Pregnancy
SLE
When is ESR decreased?
Sickle cell (altered shape)
Polycythemia (too many)
CHF (unknown)
What cancers metastasize to brain?
Lots of Bad Stuff Kills Glia:
Lung
Breast
Skin (melanoma)
Kidney (Renal CC)
GI

50% of brain tumors are from mets!
What cancers metastasize to liver?
Cancer Sometimes Penetrates Benign Liver

Colon > Stomach > Pancreas > Breast > Lung
What cancer metastasize to bone?
Which are lytic?
Blastic?
PT Barnum Loves Kids
Prostate (blastic)
Thyroid, Testes
Breast (lytic and blastic)
Lung (Lytic)
Kidney
What drugs are used to treat testicular cancer?
Eradicate Ball Caner

Etoposide
Bleomycin
Cisplatin
Associated neoplasms:
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Lymphoma
Associated neoplasms:
Down Syndrome
ALL, AML
Associated neoplasms:
Plummer-Vinson Syndrome
Squamous cell of esophagus
Associated neoplasms:
Tuberous Sclerosis
Cardiac rhabdomyoma
Associated neoplasms:
Ataxis telangectasia
Leukemia, lymphoma
Associated neoplasms:
Paget's disease of bone
Osteosarcoma, fibrosarcoma
Among men and women, compare the most common cancers and the most common cancers causing mortality.
Men:
Common: Prostate, lung, colorectal
Mortality: Lung, prostate, colorectal

Common (Women): Breast, lung, CRC
Mortality: Lung, breast, CRC
Associated neoplasms:
Rb
Retinoblastoma
Osteosarcoma
Associated neoplasms:
DPC
Pancreatic ca
Associated neoplasms:
p53
Almost all ca's
Associated neoplasms:
APC
CRC
Associated neoplasms:
WT1
Wilms Tumor
Associated neoplasms:
BRCA1 and BRCA2
Breast, Ovarian
Associated neoplasms:
Nitrosamines
Esophageal, stomach ca
Associated tumor marker:
Colon Cancer
CEA
Associated tumor marker:
Astrocytoma
S100
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia?

What cancers may cause it?
Most common cause: primary hyperparathy
Associated neoplasm:
ACTH-->Cushing's
Small cell lung ca
Associated tumor marker:
EPO-->polycythemia
RCC
Hemangioblastoma
Associated tumor marker:
ADH-->SIADH
Small cell lung ca
Associated neoplasms:
Asbestos
Mesothelioma
Bronchogenic ca
Associated neoplasms:
Naphthalene
Bladder transitional cell cancer
Associated neoplasms:
Arsenic
Squamous cellc ancer of skin
Associated neoplasms:
EBV
Burkitt's
Associated neoplasms:
HPV
Cervical, vulvar, anal, genital ca
Associated neoplasms:
Schistoma haematobium
Squamous cell ca of bladder
Associated tumor marker:
Hepatocellular carcinoma
AFP
Associated tumor marker:
Ovarian cancer
CA125
Associated tumor marker:
Pancreatic cancer
CA99
CEA
Associated tumor marker:
Melanoma
S100
Describe the events of the cell cycle and where cancer drugs act.
G1: synthesis of components needed for DNA synthesis

S phase: DNA synthesis; antimetabolites work here; as does etoposide

G2: synthesis of component needed for mitosis; bleomycin and etoposide work here

M: mitosis; vinca alkaloids and and and taxols work here
What rapidly growing cells are targeted by cancer drugs?
Cancer
Hair follicles
GI tract
Bone Marrow
Methotrexate:
MOA
Use
AE
Folic acid analog that inhibits DHF reductase (dec'd DNA and protein synthesis)

Use:
Leukemias, lymphomas, choriocarcinoma, sarcomas
ABORTION, ECTOPIC PREGNANCY, RA

AE:
Myelosuppression reversible with leucovorin (FOLINIC ACID) "rescue"
Which antibiotic shares its MOA with methotrexate?
Trimethoprim
5-flurouracil:
MOA
Use
Pyrimidine analog converted to 5F-dUMP-->complexes with folic acid; inhibits THYMIDYLATE SYNTHASE (dec'd dTMP-->dec'd DNA and protein synthesis)

Use: Colon cancer, BCC, synergy with MTX
6-mercaptopurine:
MOA
Use
Purine analog-->dec'd de novo purine synthesis; act'd by HGPRTase

Use in leukemias, lymphomas (not CLL or Hodgkin's)
This drug exhibits increased toxicity with allopurinol.
6-mercaptopurine
Cytarabine:
MOA
Use
Pyrimidine antagonist-->inhibition of DNA polymerase

AML, ALL
Dactinomycin:
MOA
Use
Intercalates in DNA; use in pediatric tumors (dACT; children ACT out)--Wilms', Eqing's, rhabdomyosarcoma
Doxorubicin:
MOA
AE
Generates free radials

AE: cardiotoxic
Daunorubucin:
MOA
AE
Generates free radicals to induce breaks in DNA

Cardiotoxic
Bleomycin:
MOA
Use
AE
Induces free radical formation-->breaks in DNA strands

Use in testicular cancer

Pulm fibrosis
Etoposide:
MOA
Use
Inhibits topoisomerase II-->inc'd DNA degradation

Use in testicular cancer
Cyclophosphamide:
MOA
AE
Alkylating agent; interstrands DNA at guanine, must be act'd by liver

AE: Hemorrhagic cystitis
Nitrosoureas:
Suffix
MOA
Use
AE
Nitro on your mustang-->ends in mustine

Alkylating agents

Use: Cross BBB to tx brain tumors

AE: CNS tox
Busulfan:
MOA
AE
Alkylates DNA

Pulm fibrosis
Vincristine:
MOA
Block polymerization of MTs
Vinblastin:
MOA
Block polymerization of MTs
Palitaxel:
MOA
Palitaxel drug class end in -TAXols

Hyperstabilize polymerized MTs in M-phase so mitotic spindle can't break down

TAXing to stay polymerized!
What drugs interfere with microtubules?
Vincristine
Vinblastine
Taxols
Bendazoles (antihelminthic)
Griseofulvin
Colchicine
Cisplatin:
MOA
Use
AE
Cross-link DNA

Testicular, bladder ca

Nephrotoxic, acoustic nerve damage
Hydroxyurea:
MOA
Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase-->dec'd DNA synthesis
Trastuzumab:
MOA
Use
MAB x HER2 (erb-B2) positive breast cancer

Cardiotoxic
Imatinib:
MOA
Use
bcr-abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor

Use in CML, GIST
Rituximab:
MOA
Use
MAB x CD20 for NHL (most B-cell neoplasms)
Which anticancer drug:
Forms complex between topoisomerase II and DNA
Etoposide
Which anticancer drug:
Aklylates DNA, AE: pulm fibrosis
Busulfan
Which anticancer drug:
Fragments DNA, AE: pulm fibrosis
Bleomycin
Which anticancer drug:
Blocks purine synthesis, metabolized by xanthine oxidase
6-MC
Which anticancer drug:
Cross-links DNA
Nephrotoxic, ototoxic
Cisplatin, carboplatin
Which anticancer drug:
Nitrogen mustart, alkylates DNA
cyclophosphamide
Which anticancer drug:
Folic acid analog that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
MTX
Which anticancer drug:
Prevents tubulin disassembly
Taxols
Which anticancer drug:
Intercalates DNA, produces oxygen free radicals, cardiotoxic
Doxarubacin, daunarubacin
Which anticancer drug:
DNA alkylating agents used in brain cancer
Nitrosureas
Which anticancer drug:
Prevents tubulin assembly
Vincristine, vinblastine
Which anticancer drug:
Inhibits thymidylate synthase-->dec'd nucleotide synthesis
5-FU
Which anticancer drug:
SERM--blocks estrogen binding to ER+ cells
Tamoxifen, raloxifene
Which anticancer drug:
MOA similar to acyclovir and foscarnet
Citeravine
Which anticancer drug:
MOA similar to fluoroquinolones
Etoposide
Which anticancer drug:
MOA similar to trimethoprim
MTX
Which anticancer drug:
MAB against HER-2
Trastuzumab
Which anticancer drug:
Free radical induced DNA strand breakage
Bleomycin, -rubacins
Which anticancer drug:
Inhibitor of PRPP synthetase
6-MC
Which anticancer drug:
Reversible with leucovorin
MTX
Which anticancer drug:
Treatment for choriocarcinoma
MTX
Vinristine, vinblastine
Which anticancer drug:
Treatment for AML
Cyterabine
Which anticancer drug:
Treatment for CML
Busulfan
Imatinib
Which anticancer drug:
Prevents breast cancer
Tamoxifen, raloxifen
Which anticancer drug:
Applied topically for AKs and BCCs
5-FU
Which anticancer drug:
Treatment for childhood tumors
Dactinomycin
Which anticancer drug:
Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase
Hydroxyurea
Which anticancer drug:
AE: hemorrhagic cystitis
Cyclophosphamide
Which anticancer drug:
Ab against Philadelphia chromosome
Imatinib
Which anticancer drug:
What are the potential side effects of prednisone?
Cuhsing's
Immunosuppression
Cataracts
Acne
Peptic ulcers
Insomnia
Which thalamic nucleus:
Somatosensory from body
VPL
Which thalamic nucleus:
Communicates with prefrontal cortex
MD (medial dorsal)
Which thalamic nucleus:
Cerebellum (dentate nucleus) and basal ganglia-->motor cortex
VL (ventral lateral)
Which thalamic nucleus:
Trigemniothalamic and taste pathways to somatosensory cortex
VPM
Which thalamic nucleus:
Retina-->occipital lobe
Lateral geniculate body
Which thalamic nucleus:
Basal ganglia-->PFC, premotor, and orbital cortices
Ventral Anterior (VA)
Which thalamic nucleus:
Mamillothalamic tract-->cingulate gyrus
Anterior nucleus
Which thalamic nucleus:
Integration of visual, auditory, and somesthenic input
Pulvinar nucleus
Which thalamic nucleus:
Memory loss results if destroyed
Medial Dorsal nucleus
Which thalamic nucleus:
Auditory info of inferior colliculus-->primary auditory cortex
Medial geniculate body