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142 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
HIV:
Structure
GPs and roles
RR5 vs X4
RNA virus (uses reverse transcriptase)

Diploid genome--2 molecules of RNA
p24--capsid protein

gp41: fusion and entry
gp120--attachment to host T cell (these gp 's are envelope proteins)

RR5--binds CCR5 and and CD4 on MACS

X4--binds CXCR4 and CD4 on T cells
Viral tropism
Which viruses cells can infect
Homozygous CCR5 vs Heterozygous CCR5 Hosts
Homozygous CCR5 hosts-->immune against HIV

Heterozygous CCR5 mutation-->Slower course
HIV:
Diagnosis
Screen: ELISA
Confirmatory: Western Blot
Structural genes in HIV.

What do they code for?
env: gp120 and gp41
gag: p24
pol: reverse transcriptase
Diagnosis of AIDS
CD4+ <200 (normal 500-1500)

RIsk pneumocystis jiroveci infection!
Classic opportunistic infections in patients with AIDS
Cryptococcal meningitis
Toxoplasmosis
CMV encephalopathy
CMV retinitis
Thrush
PCP pneumonia
Shingles
KAPOSI'S SARCOMA (HSV-8)
Antibiotics given to AIDS patients based on CD4 count.

What are you trying to prevent?
CD4+ at 200-->Bactrim to prevent PCP pneumonia (or Dapsone)
CD<100: Add azitrhomycin; worry about thrush, toxo, histo
CD<50: Fluconazole if develop cryptococcal meningitis (?)
Highly active antiretroviral therapy:
What is it?
When is it used?
2 nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + 1 protease inhibitor
OR
2 NRTIs + 1 non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

AIDS-defining illness (PCP pneumonia)
CD4+ below 350
Viral Proteases:
Suffix
MOA
AE
NAVIR TEASE a proTEASE
-vir (saquinavir, ritonavir, etc.)

HIV-1 protease cleaves mRNA into functional parts is inhibited by these drugs

AE: GI intolerance, inhibit cyp450 (making HAART drugs last longer!)
Lipodystrophy
Thrombocytopenia
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors:
MOA
Examples
AEs
Competitively inhibit nucleotide binding to reverse transcriptase; need to be phosphorylated (activated) by thymidine kinase

Ex: Zidovudine (AZT), didanosine, zalcitabine

AEs: BM suppression (reversed with EPO, G-CSF), peripheral neuropathy, lactic acidosis, rash, hepatosteatosis
Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors:
MOA
Examples
AEs
Nevirapine, Efavirenz, Declaviridine

Binds reverse transcriptase at site different from NRTIs; do not require phosphorylation

Never Ever Deliver nucleosides (NED)

AEs the same as NRTIs: AEs: BM suppression (reversed with EPO, G-CSF), peripheral neuropathy, lactic acidosis, rash, hepatosteatosis
Fusion inhibitor:
MOA
Examples
AEs
Only one drug: EnFUvirtide (FU --> fusion)

Binds viral Gp41 subunit; inhibits fusion with CD4 cells (thus preventing entry and replication)

AE: Hypersens rxn, inc'd risk bact pneumonia...
Which antiretroviral:
SE: lactic acidosis
NRTIs
Which antiretroviral:
SE: GI intolerance
Protease inhibitors
Which antiretroviral:
SE: pancreatitis
Ritonavir
Didenosine
Zalcitabine
Stavudine
Which antiretroviral:
SE: megaloblastic anemia
Zidovudine
Which antiretroviral:
SE: rash
NNRTIs
Which antiretroviral:
SE: hyperglycemia, DM, lipid abnormalities
Saquinavir
Indinavir
Which antiretroviral:
SE: Bone marrow suppression
Zidovudine
Which antiretroviral:
Give to pregnant women with HIV
Zidovudine
Which antiretroviral:
Regimen for occupational HIV exposures
Zidovudine
Which antiretroviral:
Combination of different classes of medication used to attack HIV at different point in its replication/infection cycle in order to control the infection and avoid resistance
HAART
Which class of HIV drugs causes redistribution of fat into a buffalo hump on the back of the neck?
Protease inhibitors; saquinavir, ritonavir
Which virus:
Conjunctivitis or diarrhea
Adenovirus
Which virus:
Fever, jaundice, black vomit
Yellow Fever
Which virus:
Enlarged cell with owl's eye inclusions
CMV
Which virus:
Identified with Pap smear
HPV
Which virus:
Barking seal cough
Croup/parainfluenza
Which virus:
Brassy cough
RSV
Which virus:
Negri bodies
Rabies
Which virus:
Hides in trigeminal ganglia
HSV-1/2
VZV
Which virus:
Diarrhea in children during winter months
Rotavirus
Which virus:
Cause of common cold
Rhinovirus
Coronavirus
Which virus:
Downey cells
EBV
Which virus:
Aseptic meningitis
Echovirus
Coxsackie virus
What causes a steeple sign on x-ray?
Parainfluenza
What causes a thumb sign on x-ray?
H. flu B (not seen a lot bc of immunizations)
What is the treatment for the different herpes viruses?
HSV1, HSV2, EBV, VZV all treated with cyclovir

CMV: ganciclivir, but if doesn't work, use foscarnet
For what infections is interferon used?
HBV, HCV, Kaposi's
Which antiviral:
Inhibits CMV DNA polymerase
Ganciclovir
Foscarnet
Which antiviral:
Used in treatment for chronic HCV
Ribavirin
Which antiviral:
Blocks viral penetration and uncoating
amantidine and ramantidine
Which antiviral:
Treats both influenza A and B
Zanamivir
Oseltamivir

These inhibit neuraminidase (cell entry?)
Which antiviral:
Second-line for CMV retinitis
Foscarnet
Identify HBV status:
HBsAg Negative
HBsAb Positive
HBcAb Positive
Recovery
Identify HBV status:
HBsAg Negative
HBsAb Negative
HBcAb Positive
Window Phase
Identify HBV status:
HBsAg Positive
HBsAb Negative
HBcAb Positive IgM
Acute
Identify HBV status:
HBsAg Positive
HBsAb Negative
HBcAb Positive IgG
Chronic
Identify HBV status:
HBsAg Negative
HBsAb Positive
HBcAb Negative
Immunized
Prion diseases:
What are they?
Infectious protein particles
Mad cow, ataxia
Normal flora:
Skin
Staph epidermidis
Normal flora:
Nose
S. epidermidis, Staph aureus
Normal flora:
Oropharynx
Strep viridans
Normal flora:
Dental plaque
Strep mutans (viridans)
Normal flora:
Colon
Bacteroides > E coli
Normal flora:
Vagina
Lactobacillus, colonized by E coli and Group B Strep
Which bug:
Ocean water shellfish
Diarrhea
Vibrio cholera
Which bug:
Reheated rice
Bacillus
Which bug:
Meats, mayonnaise, custard
Preformed toxin
Staph aureus
Which bug:
Reheated meat
Clostridium perfringens
Which bug:
Improperly canned foods (bulging cans)
Clostridium botulinum
Which bug:
Undercooked meat
E. coli
Which bug:
Poultry, meat, eggs
Salmonella
Which bugs cause bloody diarrhea?
Campylobacter
Salmonella
Shigella

Enterohemorrhagic E coli
Enteroinvasive E coli
Yersinia enterocolitica

C. diff
Entamoeba histolytica
Which bugs cause watery diarrhea?
Enterotoxigenic E Coli
Vibrio Cholera
C. perfringens
Protozoa (Giardia, cryptosporidium--in immunocomp'd)
Viruses (rotavirus, adenovirus, Nowralk virus--notovirus)
Which infectious agent:
Food poisoning as a result of mayonnaise sitting out too long
Staph aureus
Which infectious agent:
Diarrhea caused by Gram negative nonmotile organism that does not ferment lactose
Shigella
Which infectious agent:
Rice water stools
V. cholera or enterotoxigenic E coli
Which infectious agent:
Diarrhea caused by a C or S-shaped organism
Campylobacter
Which infectious agent:
Diarrhea transmitted from pet feces
Yersinia
Which infectious agent:
Food poisoning resulting from reheated rice (Chinese food)
Bacillus cereus
Which infectious agent:
Diarrhea caused by Gram negative motile organisms that don't ferment lactose
Salmonella
Which infectious agent:
Most common cause of traveler's diarrhea
Enterotoxic E coli
Which infectious agent:
Diarrhea caused by gram negative lactose fermenting bacteria, no fever
E Coli
Which infectious agent:
Diarrhea caused by gram negative comma-shaped organism, no fever
V cholera
Which infectious agent:
Diarrhea
Recept ingestion of water from a stream
Giardia or entameba histolytica
Which infectious agent:
Food poisoning from undercooked hamburger
E coli O57A7
Treatment for anaerobic pneumonia.
Clindamycin
Which infectious agent:
Common cause of pneuomnia in immunocompromised patients
PCP
Which infectious agent:
Most common cause of atypical/walking pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Which infectious agent:
Most common fungal infection of lung in Texas/Gulf Coast region
Histo
Which infectious agent:
Common causative agent for pneumonia in alcoholics
Klebsiella
Which infectious agent:
Can cause interstitial pneumonia in bird handlers
Chlamydia psittaci
Which infectious agent:
Often cause of pneumonia in patient with history of exposure to bats and bat droppings
Histo
Which infectious agent:
Fungal cause of pneumonia in a patient who has recently visited Southern California, New Mexico, or West Texas
Coccidioides
Which infectious agent:
Pneumonia associated with currant jelly sputum
Klebsiella
Which infectious agent:
Q fever
Coxiella burnetti
Which infectious agent:
Associated with pneumonia acquired from air conditioners
Legionella
Which infectious agent:
Most common cause of pneumonia in children 1 year old or younger
RSV
Which infectious agent:
Most common cause of pneumonia in neonate (birth-28 days)
E coli or GBS
Which infectious agent:
Most common cause of pneumonia in children and young adults, including college students, military recruits, and prison inmates
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Which infectious agent:
Common cause of pneumonia in patients with other health problems
Klebsiella
Which infectious agent:
Most common cause of viral pneumonia
RSV
Which infectious agent:
Causes a wool-sorter's disease (life-threatening pneumonia)
Bacillus anthracis
Which infectious agent:
Endogenous flora in 20% of adults
Strep pneumoniae
Which infectious agent:
Common bacterial cause of COPD exacerbation
H flu
Which infectious agent:
Common pneumonia in ventilator patients and those with cystic fibrosis
Psueudomonas
Which infectious agent:
Pontiac fever
Legionella
CSF findings of:
bacterial meningitis
Inc'd pressure
PMNs
Inc'd protein
Dec'd sugar
CSF findings of:
Fungal meningitis
Inc'd pressure
Lymphocytes
Inc'd protein
Dec'd sugar
CSF findings of:
Viral meningitis
Normal or inc'd pressure
Lymphocytes
Normal or inc'd protein
Normal sugar
CSF findings of:
TB meningitis
Inc'd pressure
Inc'd lymphocytes
Inc'd protein
Dec'd sugar
Which bugs are urease positive?
Paricular Killerse Have Urease:
Proteus
Klebsiella
H pylori
Ureaplasma
Struvite crystal
UREASE positive bacteria
What is a ToRCH infection?

Specific bugs? Presentation?
Microbes that pass from mother to fetus and result in deformation.

Toxoplasma--chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications

Rubella--PDA, cataracts, deafness, purpura

CMV: *MOST COMMON*--asyx but develop unilateral hearing loss

HIV: recurrent infections, chronic diarrhea

HSV: Temporal encephalitis, herpetic (vesicular) lesions

Syphilis--stillbirth, hydrops, facial abnlts (notched teeth, saddle nose, short maxilla)

O for Parvo: hydrops
Causes of pelvic inflammatory disease.

Risks?
Starts with cervicitis-->salpingitis (fallopian tubes), works its way upward

Risk of ectopic pregnancy, infertility, adhesions.

TOp bugs:
Chlamydia
Neisseria
Adolescent presents with cough and rust-colored sputum.

What does gram stain of sputum show?
Typical strep pneumo; gam positive diplococci
HIV+ patient with a CD4 count of 25 presents with signs of meningitis. Examination of the CSF reveals a heavily encapsulated organism.

What is the organism?
Cryptococcus
An older male patient has blood in his urine and renal stones.

Organism responsible for stones?
Proteus
50 year-old patent recovered from abdominal surgery performed 2 days ago and has had an internal catheter in place since that time.

He now has a fever of 100º.

Cause?
UTI
What are the most common causes of UTI?
E coli
Proteus
Staph saprophyticus
Klebsiella
What are the most common causes of pneumonia for the following patient populations:
6w-18y
18y-40y
40y-65y
Elderly
6w-18y: strep pneumo, chlamydia pneumonia, RSV
18y-40y: mycoplasma, strep pneumo, chlamydia
40y-65y: strep pneumo, h flu, anaerobes
Elderly: strep pneumo, gram neg rods, anaerobes
Pathology:
Signet ring cells
Gastric adenoca
Pathology:
Nutmeg liver
Right sided HF
Pathology:
Maternal elevations of AFP
Anencephaly
Spina bifida
Omphalocele
Gastrischesis
Pathology:
RBC casts in urine
Acute GN
Pathology:
Currant-jelly sputum
Klebsiella
Pathology:
Dog or cat bite
Pasturella
What are the TORCH infections?
Toxoplasma
O--parvo
Rubella
CMV
HIV/HSV
Syphilis
STD:
Clue cells
Bact vaginosis
STD:
Painless genital ulcer
Syphilis
STD:
Flagellated cells
Trichomonas
STD:
Strawberry cervix
Trichomonas
What CSF findings would you see in a patient with TB meningitis?
Inc'd Pressure, inc'd protein, dec'd sugar
Inc'd lymphocytes
Most common cause of atypical/walking pneumonia.
Mycoplasma
Common causative agent for pneumonia in alcoholics.
Klebsiella
Anaerobes if aspiration pneumonia
Can cause interstitial pneumonia in bird handlers.
Chlamydia psitecci
Often cause of pneumonia in patient with history of exposure to bats and bat droppings.
Histo
Fungal cause of pneumonia in patient who has recently visited Southern California, New Mexico, or West Texas.
Cocciodes
Pneumonia associated with currant jelly sputum.
Klebsiella
Most common cause of pneumonia in children 1 year or younger.
RSV
Most common cause of pneumonia in neonate (birth-28 days).
Group B Strep
E coli
Most common cause of pneumonia in children and young adults--including college students, military recruits, and prison inmates.
Mycoplasma
Drug class:
Ritonavir
Protease Inhibitor
Drug class:
Didanosine
NRTI
Drug class:
Declaviridine
NNRTI
Drug class:
Zidovudine
NRTI
Drug class:
Abacavir
NRTI
Drug class:
Lamivudine
NRTI
Drug class:
Nelfinavir
PI
Drug class:
Efavirenz
NNRTI