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149 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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4 roles of veterinarians in public health
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- Help control zoonoses
- Biomedical research - Monitor and promote food safety - Promote food security |
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Definition of food
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Something that nourishes, sustains, or supplies nutrients that are used to maintain life and growth
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Definition of safety
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Freedom from disease and injury
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Definition of food security
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Availability of food and one's access to it
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When is a household food-secure?
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When its occupants do not live in hunger or fear of starvation
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Problem with food safety
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Foodborne diseases
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Top three infections responsible for greatest numbers of deaths in the world
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- Acute respiratory infections
- HIV/AIDS - Diarrheal diseases (due to foodborne illness) |
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Extent of foodborne diseases in America
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Affects 1 out of 4 every year
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Number of cases of foodborne illness in the USA every year
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9.4 million
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Number of hospitalizations in the USA every year due to foodborne illness
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55,961
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Number of deaths in the USA attributable to foodborne illness
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1,351
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Direct costs of foodborne diseases in the USA
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$23 bil
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Indirect costs of foodborne diseases in the USA
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$23 - 46 bil
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Three parties of people at greatest risk for foodborne disease
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- Elderly
- Children - Immunocompromised |
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What organization is responsible for food surveillance?
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CDC
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Two branches of CDC involved in food surveillance
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- FoodNet
- PulseNet |
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What two organizations survey domestic and imported foods?
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- FDA
- CFSAN |
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What two organizations survey meat, poultry, and egg products?
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- USDA
- FSIS |
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What organization surveys eggs in the shell?
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FDA
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What two organizations survey fish?
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- DOC
- NMFS (National Marine Fisheries Service) |
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When was FoodNet established?
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1996
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10 locations of FoodNet in the USA
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- CA
- CO - CT - GA - MD - MN - NY - OR - TN - NM |
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What is the 'burden of illness pyramid'? (4)
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Top:
- Reported - Seen by GP or hospital doctor but not reported - Ill but no medical attention sought - Mild or asymptomatic Bottom |
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Four components of FoodNet
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- Epidemiology
- Laboratory survey - Physician survey - Population survey |
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Bout how many foodborne pathogens are there?
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250
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Most common cause of foodborne illness
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Bacteria
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What classifies an outbreak of a foodborne illness?
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Two or more cases of a similar illness resulting from ingestion of a common food
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What was the top four food-borne pathogens, in order?
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- Salmonella
- Campylobacter - Shigella - E. coli O157:H7 |
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Which top food-borne illness bacteria met the 2010 healthy people standard?
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STEC O157 with a 41% decrease from 1996
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Which pathogen had a significant increase in food-borne illness from 1996 to 2009?
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Vibrio (85% increase)
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What two symptoms does FoodNet look for?
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- Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
- STEC infections |
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Method of action for PulseNet
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Identify cause through molecular fingerprinting
- DNA 'fingerprinting' |
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Two information sources for passive surveillance
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- Hospital discharges
- Outpatient treatment facilities |
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What is PulseNet?
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Early warning system for outbreaks of foodborne diseases
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Four specific pathogens PulseNet monitors for
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- E. coli
- Salmonella - Listeria - Shigella |
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What are the DNA fingerprint patterns sent to? (2)
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- CDC
- Public health laboratories in the US |
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What is the average time from a patient becoming ill to case confirmation in an outbreak?
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15 days
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How long does Salmonella outbreaks take to report?
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2-3 weeks
- Can take up to 6 though |
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5 characteristics of bacteria
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- Gram stain
- Spores - Biofilms - Exotoxins - Endotoxins |
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6 factors of bacterial growth
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- Nutrients
- Acid - Time - Temperature - Oxygen - Moisture |
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Nutrients utilized by bacteria (2)
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- COH
- CNH |
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pH range of bacteria environment
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4.6 - 7.0
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Time for bacterial growth
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3 - 4 hours
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Temperature range for bacterial growth
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40 - 140 *F
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Method of bacterial reproduction
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Binary fission
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Four phases, in order, of bacterial growth
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- Lag phase
- Log phase - Stationary phase - Death phase |
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Definition of Water Activity
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Measure of water availability in the food
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What helps set up osmotic conditions for microbes?
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Some microbes oligosaccharides in cell membrane that help to regulate similarity of bacteria cell wall
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What water activity do most microbes require for growth?
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Aw = 0.99
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What minimum water activity can molds grow at?
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Aw = 0.80
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What water activity activity do staphylococcus grow at?
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~0.85
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What water activity activity do halophilic bacteria grow at?
What falls in this range? |
0.70
Dried foods |
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Temperature for best growth of thermophiles
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> 45 C
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Temperature for best growth of mesophiles
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20 - 45 C
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Temperature for best growth of Psychrophiles
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< 20 C (refrigerator temperatures)
- Cold-temperature tolerant |
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Temperature for best growth of Psychrotrophic microbes
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< 20 C
- Grows at cold temperatures |
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Two major problems of food handling
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- Contamination
- Temperature abuse |
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Major contamination methods (4)
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- Cross contamination on cutting boards ***
- Multiple handling - Food itself (meat) - Humans (feces) |
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Major temperature abuse methods (3)
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- Not below 40 F or above 145 F ***
- Poor refrigeration - Inadequate cooking |
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What are three factors responsible for bacterial foodborne diseases?
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- Food handling
- Changes in foods consumed - Changing disease potentials |
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4 consumer attitudes responsible for bacterial foodborne diseases
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- More convenience ***
- Greater variety - More 'natural' foods - Lower costs |
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3 product trends responsible for bacterial foodborne diseases
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Decreased use of:
- Artificial ingredients - Preservatives - Cooking time |
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8 processing trends responsible for bacterial foodborne diseases
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- Greater transportation and distribution distances **
- Use of cheaper ingredients - More processing and mixing - Greater refrigeration times - Longer shelf-life - More vacuum packaging - Increased use of microwaving - Faster slaughter rates or chain speeds |
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Four foods most likely to change in bacterial foodborne diseases
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- Poultry
- Red meats - Seafood - Eggs |
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4 causes of increased disease potentials with bacterial foodborne diseases
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- Consumer (hygeine, sanitation, handling, preparation, cooking)
- Farm or feedlot (contaminated feed and environment) - Transportation (grouping, mixing, and animal stressors) - Distribution |
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Two causes of decreased disease potentials with bacterial foodborne diseases
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- Slaughter (HACCP)
- Processing (HACCP, Safe Food Handling Labels) |
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Two preventions of bacterial foodborne diseases
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- Sanitation
- Avoid cross-contamination |
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Sterilization
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Kills 100% of all living organisms
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Disinfection
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Kills 100% of vegetative microbes
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Cleaning
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Removal of microbes from the surface
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Sanitization
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Reduces number of micro-organisms to a safe level
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Adequate temperature for meats
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170 F
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What temperature should refrigeration be at?
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40 F
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Minimum cooking temperature for chicken
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170 F
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Minimum cooking temperature for Pork/hamburger
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160 F
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Minimum cooking temperature
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140 F
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Danger zone
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Food held in the danger zone temperature range may cause illness
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Danger zone range
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40 - 140 F
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Most dangerous temperature range
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85 - 115 F
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3 things the Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) regulates
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- Meat
- Poultry - Processed egg industries |
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How many slaughter plants are there nationwide?
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6,500
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How many Veterinary Medical Officers are employed by the FSIS?
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1,000
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How many Inspectors are employed by the FSIS?
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7,400
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How many cattle are slaughtered yearly according to FSIS?
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35 million
- 800,000 calves |
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Percentage of cadavers condemned yearly
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680,000 (0.49%)
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When was the first act of congress made to cover export of U.S. meat?
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1891
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What provided for mandatory postmortem inspection?
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Meat Inspection Act of 1906
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What does the Wholesome Meat Act of 1967 provide for? (2)
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- State programs must be 'equal to' federal
- Provided for mandatory antemortem inspection |
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What is the FSIS mission statement?
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Ensuring that the nation's commercial supply of meat, poultry, and egg products is safe, wholesome, and correctly labeled and packaged
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What is a voluntary service?
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Meat grading
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What is a mandatory service?
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Meat inspection
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What is custom slaughter?
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Meats processed for personal use
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6 species not subject to the FMIA (Federal Meat Inspection Act)
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- Bison
- Deer - Elk - Reindeer - Water buffalo - Catalo Basically: wild animals |
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What are nonameable species slaughter surveyed by?
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FDA
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Purpose of antemortem inspection
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To assure that only animals capable of producing a wholesome, safe product are passed for slaughter
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5 aspects of antemortem inspection
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- Before slaughter
- On premises - Day of slaughter - In motion - At rest |
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Who performs AM inspection? (2)
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- Food inspectors (can't make dispositions, just separate out)
- Veterinary Medical Officers (make dispositions) |
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Three AM dispositions
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- Pass for regular slaughter
- Pass for slaughter as US suspect - US condemned |
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6 AM conditions that cause US. suspect classification
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- Ocular squamous cell carcinoma
- Acti (actinobacillus) - Lameness - Swellings - Skin conditions - Abnormal posture/dyspnea |
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5 AM conditions that cause US condemned classification
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- Downers
- CNS conditions - Dead/moribund - Cachexia (poor BCS) - Pyrexia |
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Temperature required for pyrexia for cattle, sheep, and horses
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> 105 F
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Temperature required for pyrexia for swine
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> 106 F
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5 reportable diseases in slaughter
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- Vesicular diseases
- CNS diseases - Brucellosis - Screwworms - Babesiosis |
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Who performs PM inspections? (2)
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- Food inspectors (separate normal from abnormal)
- Veterinarians (provide dispositions) |
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Beef inspection procedures for the head (4)
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- Examine surfaces
- Slice and observe the LN - Slice and observe the masseters - Palpate the tongue |
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7 beef inspection procedures for viscera
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- Observation
- Incise lung nodes - Incise heart - Incise bile duct - Observe/palpate liver - Observe/palpate r-r junction - Observe intestines and spleen |
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Three beef inspection procedures for carcass
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- Observe body cavities
- Observe carcass outer surfaces - Palpate kidneys/diaphragm |
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6 postmortem disposition options
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- U.S. inspected and passed
- U.S. inspected and condemned - Passed for refrigeration - Passed for cooking - Passed for heating - Passed for use in cooked comminuted product |
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11 conditions observed at PM that condemn the carcass
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- Septicemia
- Toxemia - Acute erysipelas - TB - Generalized conditions - Emaciation - Icterus - Tumors if metastatic - Anaplasmosis - Vena cava syndrome - Injection site lesions that are violative |
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7 Conditions observed PM that receive passed classification
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- Johne's Disease (except intestines)
- Non-metastatic tumors - Localized pathology (after trimming) - Chronic erysipelas - Trimmable injuries - Melanosis - Neurofibroma |
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What classification does Cysticercosis receive upon PM observation?
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US passed for freezing
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Who performs on-site residue testing?
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In-plant veterinarians
- Results in 24 hours |
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Three products that are re-inspected
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- Processed products
- Imported products - Export products |
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What are SRMs?
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Specific Risk Materials
- Have higher risk for BSE and are considered inedible and must be removed from the carcasses and parts |
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9 SRMs for cattle
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- Tonsils
- Distal ileum - Skull - Brain - SC - Vertebral column - Eyes - Dorsal root ganglia - Trigeminal ganglia |
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3 lab samples run on slaughtered animals
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- Microbiological sampling
- Pathology - Chemistry |
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3 bacteria tested for in microbiological sampling
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- E. coli O157:H7
- L. monocytogenes - Salmonella |
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2 ways to control condemned products
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- ID
- Destruction |
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What bill created the following two provisions:
- Animals must be handled humanely - Animals must be rendered insensible to pain prior to slaughter |
Humane Slaughter of 1978
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3 approved methods of stunning
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- Electrical
- Mechanical (Gunshot, captive bolt) - Chemical (CO2) |
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What created HACCP?
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Pathogen Reduction Rule (1990s)
- Focused on food safety of products |
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3 parts of the FSIS verification of food safety system
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- HACCP
- SSOP - Generic E. coli and other testing programs |
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Who samples for salmonella?
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FSIS
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Who samples for generic E. coli?
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Plant
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What is Salmonella and generic E. coli sampling part of?
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PR/HACCP
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4 pathogens tested for in finished products
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- E. coli O157:H7
- L. monocytogenes - Salmonella - Campylobacter |
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When is a recall instituted?
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If adulterated products have entered commerce
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Who requests recalls?
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FSIS
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What is intensity of inspection based upon?
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Risk to public health
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Two aspects of the Public Health Information System (PHIS)
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- Inherent product risk
- Plant controls |
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How many pathogens were included in the article of Emerging Infectious Diseases?
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31
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Top four pathogens in all cases of FBI
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- Norovirus (58%)
- Salmonella (11%) - C. perfringens - Campylobacter |
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Top four pathogens in hospitalized cases of FBI
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- Salmonella (35%)
- Norovirus (26%) - Campylobacter - T. gondii |
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Top four pathogens involved in FBI deaths
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- Salmonella (28%)
- T. gondii (24%) - L. monocytogenes (19%) - Norovirus |
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Percentage of US population susceptible to FBI
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25%
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What does YODIM stand for?
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- Young
- Old - Diseased - Immunodeficient - Malnourished |
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What pathogen is associated with the Young category?
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E. coli O157:H7
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What pathogen is associated with the Old category?
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Hepatitis A virus
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What pathogen is associated with the Diseased category?
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Vibrio vulnificus
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What pathogen is associated with the immunodeficient category?
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Listeriosis
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What pathogen is associated with the Malnourished category?
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Salmonellosis
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4 natural barriers to infection
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- Parietal cells
- Lymphoid cells - M cells - Intestinal microvilli |
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4 bacterial diseases to be concerned about with FBIs
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- Salmonella
- Listeria - Campylobacter - E. coli HUS |
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3 classifications of foodborne disease causes
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- Toxicoinfection
- Invasive infection - Bacterial toxins (pre-formed) |
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Longest two incubation periods of foodborne diseases
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- Hepatitis A
- L. monocytogenes |
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Shortest 4 incubation periods for foodborne diseases
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- S. aureus
- V. paraheamolyticus - C. perfringens - Salmonella |
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What pathogen has the lowest infectious dose?
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Shigella
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What pathogen has the highest infectious dose?
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ETEC
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What two categories is E. coli O:157 in?
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- Emerging zoonoses
- Food-borne diseases |
