11-217 Review

Front 1

What are the control instruments:

Back 1

Torque display and attitude indicator.

Front 2

The control and performance concept procedural steps are: (in order)

Back 2

Establish attitude and power, trim off pressures, crosscheck, adjust.

Front 3

What is a "standard" holding pattern?

Back 3

Right turns, 1 minute when holding at or below 14,000 feet.

Front 4

ATC should issue holding instructions at least _____ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix. When the aircraft is _____ minutes or less from a clearance limit fix and clearance beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction to cross the fix at or below the maximum holding airspeed.

Back 4

5; 3

Front 5

When are you considered established in holding?

Back 5

You are considered to be established in the holding pattern upon initial passage of the holding fix.

Front 6

Unless compensating for known winds, make all turns during entry and while holding at 3 degrees per second or _____ , or the bank angle commanded by the flight director system, whichever requires the least bank.

Back 6

30 degrees of bank

Front 7

When holding, unless correcting for known winds, make all turns during entry and while holding at _____ degress per second or _____degree bank angle, or the bank angle commanded by the flight director system.

Back 7

3, 30

Front 8

If you are established in a holding pattern with a published minimum holding altitude and you are assigned a higher altitude, when may you descend to the published minimum holding altitude?

Back 8

When cleared for the approach.

Front 9

If you are established in a holding pattern that does not have a published holding or minimum IAF altitude, and you are cleared for the approach:

Back 9

Maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the approach.

Front 10

Ten second interval takeoffs will not be performed when the ceiling and visibility are reported less than_____ft and_____miles.

Back 10

1500, 3

Front 11

T or F: Aircraft heading has no effect on the TO-FROM indicator.

Back 11

True

Front 12

When used with VOR or TACAN, full-scale CDI deflection on most aircraft indicates ___ degrees of course deviation (each dot indicates ___ degrees).

Back 12

10; 5

Front 13

According to AFMAN 11-217, reliable DME signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude with an accuracy of _____ mile or _____ percent of the distance, whichever is greater.

Back 13

1/2; 3

Front 14

When checking the DME at a ground checkpoint the DME should indicate within _____ mile(s) or _____ percent of the distance, whichever is greater.

Back 14

1/2, 3

Front 15

The glide slope signal is usable to a distance of _____ NM from the glide slope antenna unless otherwise depicted on the IAP.

Back 15

10

Front 16

T or F: Where procedures depict a ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions, unless being radar vectored.

Back 16

True

Front 17

Absence of an ILS identifier:

Back 17

Indicates an unreliable signal.

Front 18

When proceeding to a station, turning to keep the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line describes:

Back 18

Homing

Front 19

Turning in the shorter direction to place the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line and centering the CDI with a TO indication, then maintaining that course to the station describes:

Back 19

Proceeding direct.

Front 20

List the steps for an inbound course intercept full panel.

Back 20

TIM, set the desired course in the CSW and check for a TO indication, turn in the shorter direction to place the heading pointer towards the CDI and continue the turn to place it in the top half of the case, maintain the heading until a lead point

Front 21

Station passage at a VOR or VOR/DME is determined when:

Back 21

The TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM.

Front 22

Groundspeed checks made below_____ft AGL are accurate at any distance.

Back 22

5000

Front 23

As a technique, when correcting back to the arc, displace the bearing pointer _____ from the reference point for each 1/2 mile deviation to the inside of the arc and _____ for each 1/2 mile outside the arc.

Back 23

5, 10

Front 24

When checking the altimeter against a known checkpoint on the ground, the maximum allowable error is ____ feet.

Back 24

75.

Front 25

_____ NOTAMs contain information that doesn't require wide dissemination and will not prevent the us of an airfield's runways.

Back 25

Civilian L Series.

Front 26

Approach category is based on 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration. The Approach speeds for Category B are ____ knots or more but less than _____ knots.

Back 26

91 121

Front 27

T or F: An aircraft may fly an approach only for its own category or higher, unless authorized by the major command directives.

Back 27

True

Front 28

T or F: If your aircraft has the equipment (i.e. VOR, LOC, ETC.) stated in the title on an approach plate, you are guaranteed that you can fly the complete approach (including the missed approach).

Back 28

False

Front 29

If there is a requirement to execute an approach procedure with incompatible missed approach instructions, request alternate missed approach instructions prior to ___ .

Back 29

Accepting approach clearance

Front 30

When the name of the approach is followed by a letter such as A, B, C, etc., the approach is designed for _____.

Back 30

Circling minimums only

Front 31

Air Force pilots flying FAA or US Army departure procedures must plan to cross the departure end of the runway at least _____ feet AGL and climb at a rate of at least _____ feet per NM to be assured of obstacle clearance.

Back 31

35, 200.

Front 32

Air Force pilots flying Air Force / Navy SID's must plan to cross the departure end of the runway at least_____feet above ground level and climb at a rate of at least_____feet per nautical mile to be assured of SID obstacle clearance.

Back 32

0' or as published, 200

Front 33

When flying a departure procedure, we must climb on runway heading until _____ feet above airport elevation, unless otherwise instructed.

Back 33

400

Front 34

T or F: USAF T-6 aircraft may use non-standard weather minimums for takeoff if aircraft performance will allow the aircraft to be at the non-standard ceiling requirement by the end of the runway and comply with published climb gradient requirements

Back 34

True

Front 35

The marker beacon light is flashing alternating dashes and dots. What marker are you over ?

Back 35

Middle

Front 36

T or F: If you have started an en route descent, ATC will not terminate the en route descent without your consent unless in an emergency.

Back 36

True

Front 37

If you experience lost communications during an en route descent:

Back 37

you are cleared to fly any approach.

Front 38

Once cleared for an approach, maintain the last assigned altitude and heading until:

Back 38

established on a segment of the approach.

Front 39

During an en route descent the controller tells you that you are cleared for the approach and you are below a published altitude restriction. You should:

Back 39

maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the approach.

Front 40

If during a descent ATC advises you that radar contact is lost while in IFR conditions and there is a delay in receiving new instructions, what should you do?

Back 40

Ask the controller for a new clearance.

Advise the controller of your intentions.

Front 41

Prior to the IAF you must:

Back 41

recheck the weather.
review the IAP.
check the heading and attitude systems.
obtain clearance for the approach.

Front 42

Prior to starting an enroute descent, a number of checks are directed by AFMAN 11-217. Which of the following are included in this group?

Back 42

Obtain Clearance
Check heading and attitude systems.
Review the IAP for the type of final planned.

Front 43

T or F: When clearance for an approach is issued, ATC expects an immediate turn in the shortest direction to intercept the approach course upon reaching the IAF.

Back 43

True

Front 44

If cleared for an approach and your heading is not within 90 degrees of the penetration course, it would be acceptable to:

Back 44

request clearance to maneuver for more favorable alignment.

Front 45

When cleared for an approach, proceed to IAF, then turn _____ to intercept the approach course.

Back 45

in the shortest direction

Front 46

If all fly-off restrictions have been met, you may initiate descent from a high altitude IAF when:

Back 46

abeam or past the IAF with a parallel or intercept heading.

Front 47

While being vectored, repeat:

Back 47

all headings
all altitudes (departing and assigned)
all altimeter settings.

Front 48

When flying a non-DME high-altitude teardrop approach, if you arrive at the IAF at an altitude below that published:

Back 48

maintain altitude and proceed outbound 15 seconds for each 1,000 feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting descent.

Front 49

You arrive at the IAF of a non-DME teardrop penetration below the published altitude. You should maintain your present altitude and proceed outbound_____seconds for each_____ft the aircraft is below the published IAF altitude before starting to descend.

Back 49

15, 1000

Front 50

T or F: When flying a High non-DME penetration, you should not begin the approach from an altitude above the depicted IAF altitude.

Back 50

True

Front 51

When do you start your turn inbound on a non-DME teardrop penetration if no penetration turn altitude is depicted?

Back 51

After descending one-half the way through the total IAF to FAF altitude.

Front 52

When flying an approach with dead reckoning legs:

Back 52

use lead points for turns to and from the DR legs.
you should fly the depicted ground track.
you should apply wind corrections.

Front 53

Holding In Lieu of Procedure Turn approaches will not be flown when:

Back 53

issued an ATC clearance for a straight-in approach.
ATC vectors the aircraft to final approach.
conducting timed approaches from a holding fix.

Front 54

While flying a procedure turn, the teardrop course will be displaced a maximum of_____degrees from the procedure turn course.

Back 54

30

Front 55

If the entry turn places the aircraft on the nonmaneuvering side of the procedure turn course, and you are flying in excess of _____ KTAS, you must correct toward the procedure turn course with an intercept angle of at least _____ degrees.

Back 55

180, 20.

Front 56

If the procedure turn course is intercepted outbound, maintain course for the remainder of the outbound leg, then turn _____ the maneuvering side to reverse the course.

Back 56

Toward

Front 57

T or F: When flying a 45-180 maneuver on a low altitude procedure turn, there is no requirement to intercept the depicted outbound track.

Back 57

False

Front 58

The maximum teardrop displacement for a holding in lieu of (HILO) approach is _____ degrees.

Back 58

45

Front 59

When may pilots descend out of the IAF altitude for a procedure track?

Back 59

When abeam or past the IAF on a parallel or intercept heading to the procedure track.

Front 60

T or F: If timing is not specifically depicted on the instrument approach procedure, timing can still be used to identify the missed approach point.

Back 60

False

Front 61

The pilot may not descend below ____ feet above the TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the red termination bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable.

Back 61

100

Front 62

The final approach course on a non-radar final may vary from the runway heading as much as ______ degrees (except localizer) and still be published as a straight-in approach.

Back 62

30.

Front 63

The course selected in the course select window when flying an ILS or localizer approach should:

Back 63

always be the front course.

Front 64

The localizer has a usable range of at least _____ miles within 10 degrees of the course centerline.

Back 64

18.

Front 65

If the aircraft is more than_____dot(s) below or_____dot(s) above glide slope while on an ILS final, you should not descend below localizer mins.

Back 65

1, 2

Front 66

Attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for:

Back 66

1 minute while being vectored to final.

15 seconds on final for an ASR.

5 seconds on final for a PAR.

Front 67

When an ASR approach will end in a circle, furnish the controller with:

Back 67

your aircraft category.

Front 68

T or F: While flying a PAR, decision height is determined in the cockpit either as read on the altimeter or when advised by the controller, which ever occurs first.

Back 68

True

Front 69

The paved area on the approach side of a displaced threshold can be used for taxi and takeoff, when it is marked with a series of:

Back 69

large white arrows.