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176 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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antidote?
acetaminophen
n-acetylcysteine
antidote?
anticholinergics
physiostigmine
antidote?
anticholinesterases; organophosphates
atropine, pralidoxime
antidote?
arsenic, mercury, gold
dimercaprol
antidote?
aspirin
sodium bicarb
alkalinzation of urine
dialysis
antidote?
benzos
flumazenil
antidote?
B-blockers
glucagon
calcium gluconate
dextrose-insulin therapy
antidote?
CO
hyperbaric 100% o2
antidote?
copper
D-penicillamine
antidote?
cyanide
amyl nitrite
sodium thiosulfate
hydroxocobalamin
antidote?
digitalis
anti-digoxin FAB antibodies
antidote?
methanol
ethanol
antidote?
heparine
protamine
antidote?
iron
deferoxamine
antidote?
isoniazid
pyridoxine (vit B6)
antidote?
lead
EDTA, dimercaprol
(if kid, give succimer)
antidote?
drugs causing methemoglobinemia
methylene blue
antidote?
opioids
naloxone/naltrexone
antidote?
quinidine
sodium bicarb
lidocaine
magnesium sulfate
antidote?
strychnine
benzos, neuromuscular blocade
antidote?
theophylline
Benzos, B-blockers
antidote?
tPA
aminocaproic acid
antidote?
tricyclic antidepressants
sodium bicarb, benzos
antidote?
warfarin
vitamin K,
fresh frozen plasma
mechanism of toxicity, effects, and antidote
CO
binds to Hb with greater affinity

headahces, seizure, death

100% hyperbaric O2
mechanism of toxicity, effects, and antidote
cyanide
reacts with iron in cytochrome oxidase in mitochondria, thereby stopping electron transport and ATP formation

hypotension, lactic acidosis, coma, rapid death. venous O2 level is elevated because O2 UTILIZATION IS DIMINISHED AT TISSUE LEVEL. blood is bright red b/c cyanie affects mitochondria and rRBCs dont have mitochondria,

amyl nitrate (reverses binding of CN to cytochrome oxidase) or thiosulfate (thiocyanate, excreted)
antidotes for ethanol toxicity (there are 3)
acute withdrawal = benzos
prevent wernicke's = thiamine
chronic alcoholism = disulfiram
mechanism of toxicity, effects, and antidote
methanol
methanol is converted to formaldehyde via alcohol dehydrogenase. then it forms formic acid via aldehyde dehydrogenase. formic acid accumulates and causes retinal toxicity.

blindness, metaboilic acidosis, death

tx = ethanol
mechanism of toxicity, effects, and antidote
strychinine
it is a competitive antagonist of glycine in CNS (loss of normal inhibitory tone and causes excitation)

may cause seizure, contraction of all voluntary muslces

tx = benzos or neuromuscular blockade
P450 inducers... what is pneumonic and what are the drugs?
Barb uses pfhe-phen, cigarettes, and ethanol, but refuses greasy carbs

Barbituates
phenytoin
smoking
ethanol
rifampin
griseofulin
cabamazepine


ALSO = omepraxole, gemfibrozil, doxorubicni, nefazodone, valproic aci, zileuton
Side effect(s) of:
doxorubicin/daunorubicin
cardiac toxicity
Side effect(s) of:
quinidine, quinine, aspirin
cinchonism (flushed skin, sweating, confusion, tinnitis, vomiting, headache, rash, etc)
Side effect(s) of:
haloperidol, chlorpromazine, reserpine, MPTP
parkonsonism (tremor, rigidity, difficulty moving)
Side effect(s) of:
antipsychotics; metoclopramide
tardive dyskinesia
Side effect(s) of:
chlorpromaiine, thioridazine, haloperidol
extrapyrimidal side effects (problems with movement/posture etc.
Side effect(s) of:
halothane, isoniazid
hepatitis
Side effect(s) of:
valproic acid, acetaminophen, halothane
focal or massive hepatic necrosis
Side effect(s) of:
broad spectrum antibiotics eg. clindamycin
pseudomembranous colitis
Side effect(s) of:
phenytoin
gingival hyperplasia
Side effect(s) of:
metformin
lactic acidosis
Side effect(s) of:
lithium, demeclocycline
diabetes insipidus
Side effect(s) of:
heavy metals
fanconis' sydnrome (Fanconi Syndrome (also known as Fanconi's syndrome) is a disorder in which the proximal tubular function of the kidney is impaired,[1] resulting in decreased reabsorption of electrolytes and nutrients back into the bloodstream. Compounds involved include glucose, amino acids, uric acid, phosphate and bicarbonate.)
Side Effect of:
Three C's:
clozapine, carbamazepine, colchicine, and propylthiouracil
agranulocytosis
Side Effect of:
spironolactone
digitalis
cimetidine
estrogen
alcohol abuse
ketoconazole
gynecomastia
Side Effect of:
lithium
hypothyroidism
name some drugs that cause gynecomastia
spironolactone
digitalis
cimetidine
estrogen
alcohol abuse
ketoconazole
what causes gray baby?
chloramphenicol
what does heparin do to bones?
osteoporosis
what is side effect of:
hydralazine
isoniazid
procainamide
phenytoin
penicillamine
chlorpromazine, methyldopa, quinidien
SLE-like symptoms
name some drugs that cause SLE like syndrome
hydralazine
isoniazid
procainamide
phenytoin
penicillamine
chlorpromazine, methyldopa, quinidien
name 3 drugs that cause photosensitivity
sulfonamides
amiodarone
tetracycline
name four drugs taht cause cutaneous flushing
vancomycin
niacin
adenosine
ca channel blockers
what drugs cause the two side effects of ototoxiisty and nephrotoxicity
aminoglycosides
loop diuretics
cisplain
what drugs cause neurotoxiity and neprhotoxidicty
polymyxins (may be used for strains of pseudomonas that are resistant to cephalosporins)
why is acetominophen extra dangerous in an alcoholic?
what is antedote?
chronic alcoholics have upregulation of CYP450. this speeds the metabolism of acetominophen, and hence the formation of the toxic metabolite NAPQI. Also, chronic alcohol use can deplete glutathione stores.

Tx = n-acetylcysteine
what happens to bilirubin levels in acetominophen toxicity?
total bili increases due to increase in indirect bili (impaired conjugation of bilirubin in liver)
psychotic patient comes in with whitish plaques on tongue. What is going on? what is it? what will her blood count look like? what is Tx?
she has oral candidiasis (thrush). She is psychotic, and likely toaking CLOZAPINE which is an antipsychotic that causes agranulocytosis. this disposes pts to infection because it causes neutropenia.

tx = stop the drug
treat oral thrush with nystatin "swish and swallow"
what are two mechanisms that drugs can cause agranulocytosis?
1 direct toxicity to neutrophils and precursor cells (eg cyclophospamide)

2. drugs can act as haptens, bind to neutrophils and cause autoimmune destruction of neutrophils
man with chronic anxiety and suicide attempt. decreased RR. BP is 100/65. He is ataxic and speech is slurred.
what kind of drug did he OD on?
benzos (loraxepam, alpraxolam, diazepam)

benzos bind to GABA receptors in CNS, increasing affinity of GABA for receptor, thus increaing conductance of the assoicated chloride channel. this causes hyperpolarization of membrane and inhibition of firing.
what is antidote to benzo overdose and what is that mech?
flumazenil is given in benzo overdose. it is competitive inhibitor at GABA receptor. must be given freq. because it has short half life.
*flumazenil may decrease seizure threshold by blocking GABA* so be careful in pt who took something that may cause seizure activity
what is mech of action of benzos? name some benzos?
benzos (loraxepam, alpraxolam, diazepam)

benzos bind to GABA receptors in CNS, increasing affinity of GABA for receptor, thus increaing conductance of the assoicated chloride channel. this causes hyperpolarization of membrane and inhibition of firing.
what is effect of sudden withdrawal from benzo?
GI upset, anxiety, confusiton, agitation
what are benzos often used to treat?
panic disorders
status epilepticus (diazepam is choice)
sleep disorders (insomnia)
alcohol withdrawal (diazepam is choice)
name 4 B2-adrenergic agonists
albuterol
terbutaline
metaprotenerol
ritodrine
type of drug:
albuterol
B2- agonist
type of drug:
ritodrine
B2-agonist
type of drug:
diazepam
benzo
type of drug:
terbutaline
B2- agonist
type of drug:
metaprotenerol
B2-agonist
what is effect of B2 agonist on bronchiloles?
blood vessels?
pancreatic (____) cells?
parietal cells of gastric mucosa
uterine myometrium?
what is effect of B2 agonist on bronchiloles -= bronchodilation
blood vessels = vasodilation
pancreatic (____) cells = pancreatic alpha cells, increases glucagon secretion
parietal cells of gastric mucosa = increased gastic acid secretion
uterine myometrium = uterine muscle relaxation
what class of G proteins are B2 receptors linked to?
S class
(B1 and B2 are both linked to S class)
increased cAMP, increased PKA
what class of G protein receptors has decreased cAMP?
Gi
what class of G protein receptors has increased cAMP?
Gs
what class of G protein receptors has increased Ip3? what is calcium level?
Gq
increased calcium level
what class of G protein receptors are a2 receptors?
Gi (decreased cAMP, decreased PKA)
what class of G protein receptors are B1, B2, B3?
Gs (increased cAMP, increased PKA)
what class ofG proteins are alpha 1 receptors?
Gq (increased IP3 = increased calcium
Class of G protein:
M2, D2, a2
Gi
Class of G protein
B1, B2, B3, D1, H2, V2
Gs
Class of G protein
a1, M1, M3, H1, V1
Gq
what phase of trial?
small group of patients between 100-300. usually compare drug to placebo and/or current standard drug
`phase 2
what is phase 1 of clinical trial?
20-30 healthy volunteers. determine if humans have diff. response than animals, and to determine dosage
phast is phase 3?
hundreds - thoushands of pts, usually double blindd. after phase 3 is successful, comapany can submit new drug application.
phase 4:
drug is used in real conditions in lg number of patients. look for any toxicities. Only occurs after approval from FDA
what are organophosphates and who usually overdoses from them?
they are cholinesterase inhibitors - found in insecticides. usually farmers
name symptoms of organophosphate OD
sweting, slurred speech, abdominal pain, SOB, confusion, urinary incontinence
-they are cholinesterase inhibitiors
name some cholinesterase inhibitors
neostigmine
physiostigmine,
edrophonium (short half life)
name one drug used to treat glaucoma
physiostigmine (cholinesterase inhibitor)
what do you use to diagnose Myasthenia gravis?
what do you use to treat MG?
edrophonium to diangose (short half life)

neostigmine or pyriodostigmine to treat

both are cholinesterase inhibitors)
what can reverse cholinsterase inhibitor poisoning?
atropine or pralidoxime (2PAM)
atropine works by inhibiting muscarinic receptrso, thereby decreaseing affect of Ach
2-PAM works by inhibitng the binding of organophospahtes to cholinesterase.
what does atropine overdose cause
mydriasis, decreased GI motility, increased body temp, dry mouth, dry skin, constipation, disorientations, rapid HR
treatment with what drug can cause symptoms of myasthenia gravis?
penicillamine (but they disappear if drug is stopped)
besides medication, how can you treat MG pts?
THYMECTOMY. 75% of pts with MG have some abnormality of thymus gland (25% are thymoma)
half life of drug is 5 hrs;
renal clearance is 2ml/min
what is volume of distribution?
t(1/2) = (0.7 * Vd)/clearance

convert hours to minutes:
5 hrs = 300 minutes

300 = (0.7 * X)/2
600 = 0.7X
X = 857 ml
half life of a drug is directly proportional to what?
volume of distribution
what is relationship between half life and voume of distribution?
they are directly proportional
if you have a larger Vd, is there MORE or LESS drug in the plasma?
LESS... it means there is more in the rest of the body.
what side effect with hydralazine cause?
drug induced lupus
pt presents with rash, arthralgias, antihistone antibodies... what is dx?
drug induced lupus
(recall antihistone abs!!)
what is side effect of these drugs:
procainamide
isoniazid, methyldoapa, peicillamine, chlorpromazine, dilitiazem, miocycline
lupus like syndrome
(drug induced lupus)
how are lipid soluble meds metabolized?
phase i rxn will convert lipophilic dru into more polar molecule (oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, many involve P450). Phase II will make it water soluble to be excreted (glucuronic acid conjugation, acetylation etc.)
what is mech of action of hydralazine, what side effect?
causes drug induced lupus

hydralazine is direct vasodilator that acrts on arteries and arterioles more than on venous side. vasodilation causes reflex tachycardia and stimulation of RAS pathway. SO, hydralazine is ALWAYS GIVEN WITH A BETA BLOCKER AND A DIURETIC
what is difference between efficacy and potency?
efficacy = total maximum effect of the drug

potency = amount of drug required for a specific response (measured by ED50) the lower the ED50, the more potent the drug
what kind of antagonist will affect the ED50?
competitive antagoinst will because they increase the amount of drug needed to achieve a certain effect

noncompetitive won't affect eD50, but will affect teh maximum effect a drug can ellicit
what drug do you use with aminoglycosides to increase coverage if you don't know the bacterial pathogen?
extended spectrum penicillins;

they are inactivated by B-lactamases
what drug is commonly used as prophylaxis for endocarditis before major procedures
amoxicillin
(amoxicillin is diff from ampicillin bc it has better oral absorption)
what drug is particularly affective against pseudomonas?
pipperacillin
1st vs 3rd gen cephalos?
1st = mostly gram +, some gram -

3rd = mostly gram -, some gram +
3rd generation enters CNS
what cephalo would you use for pseudomonas?
3rd (ceftriaxone) or 4th gen
what cephalo for e. coli, klebsiella, proteus miribilis?
1st gen (cefalexin, cefazolin,
imipenem is what kind of drug?
broad spectrum cephalo; used fro gram negative organisms, enters CNS
what drugs are #1 cause of c. difficile infxns in hospitals?
cephalosporins
mech of aminoglycosides?
inhibit bacterial protein synthesis.
BACTERIOSTATIC
bind to 30s ribosomal subunit.

must be given parenternally
DO NOT PENETRATE CSF
what type of bact are aminoglycosides normally used against?
gram (-) aerobic bacteria
how do aminoglycosides develop resistance to drugs?
plasmids that are transmitted by conjugation
do aminoglycosides penetrate CNS?
no
what 3 conditions do you use streptomycin for?
1. plague (yersina pestis)
2. severe cases of brucellosis
3. recalcitrant mycobacterial infections
what is major side effect of aminoglycosides?
ototoxicity; neprhortoxic,
at high doses, may cause neuromuscular blockade (reversed using neostimine and calcium gluconate
how does vancomycin work?
it inhibits bact. cell wall synthesis by bindig to terminal end of growing peptidoglycan to prevent elngation and cross linking; active against gram (+)
what is famous syndrome caused by vancomycin
red man syndrome
how does bacitracin work?
inhibits dephosphorylation and reuse of phospholipids in making cell wall. only used topically for minor infections.
how do tetracyclins work
bind 30 s submunit
prevent binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the acceptor site on the mRNA-ribosome complex; inhibitn bacterial protein synthesis.
good for gram + and gram - infxns
what is the drug type and name used to treat SIADH> how does it work?
demeclocycline
it is a tetracycline
inhibits action of ADH at tubules by imparing cAMP action
what is demeclocycline specifically used for?
treating SIADH
what drugs cause tooth discolorations?
tetracyclines
how does chloramphenicol work?
inhibits 50s subunit
prevetns bacterial protein synthesis by blocking action of peptidyl transferase; high concentrations will also affect eukaryotic mitochondrial protein synthesis
chloramphenicol is used to treat what 4 diseases in particular?
1. typhoid fever
2. meningitis due to H. Influenza in pts allergic to penicillin
3. anaerobic infxns of brain (B. fragilis) in combination with penicillin
4. alternative to tetracycline in treating rickettsial disease
major side effect of chloramphenicol
dose related bone marrow suppression
irreversible aplastic anemia;

hemolytic anemia in pts with G6PD deficiency

gray baby syndrome
how does erythromycin work?
gram + or -
binds 50 s subunit and prevents protein synthesis.
penetrates all body except CSF
inactivated by stomach acid, so given in coated tabs

gram +
what do you use to treat Leigonnaires disease
erythromycin
what do you use to treat syphilis, Mycoplasma pneumonia, corneybacterium, bordetella pertussus (whooping cough)
erythromycin
Name a drug useful against MAC (avium cellulare) in AIDS pts
clarithromycin
what is effect of erythromycin on CYP450?
inhibition, so you may get toxic accumulation of other drugs that are metabolized by CYP450
when erythromycin is given IV, what is side effect you're worried about?
thrombophlebitis
clindamycin works the same way as ________
erythromycin
when do you use clindamycin?
anaerobic infections (B. Fragilis); and topical use for acne
what drug puts you at risk for pseudomembranous colitis
clindamycin
sulfonamides are analogs of what?
para-amniobenzoic acid (PABA)
sulfonamides prevent syntehsis of what? which is needed for what?
sulfonamides prevent production of dihydrofolic acid, which is normally reduced by dihydrofolate reductase and then used to produce purines and pyrimidines and amino acids

these drugs inhibit bacterial growth
do sulfonamides penetrate CSF:
yes
what drug is used to treat UTIs (E coli) and as prophylaxis for recurrent otitis media?
sulfonamides
what drugs are used to treat toxoplasmosis and norardiosis (actinomyces)
sulfonamides
when do you use TMPSMX?
uncomplicated UTIs, GI infections (particularly shigellosis), travelers diarrhea
what drug is used as phrophylaxis for Pneumocystis jirovecii in AIDS pts? and as a tx at high doses?
TMP SMX
what drug combo is used to treat malaria caused by plasmodium falciparum
sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine
what drug is used to treat ulcerative colitis
sulfsalazine (poorly absorbed sulfonamide)
topical silver sulfadiazine is used to treat what?
burn infxns
what drug is used topically to tx burn/wound infxns
silver sulfadiazine
what drugs may cause Steven Johnson syndrome
sulfonamides

steven johnson syndrome = erythema multiforme with lesions and ulcers on skin and mucous membranes may involve oral mucosa or conjunctiva in eye
what is another name for erythema multiforme? name one drug and one pathogen that can cause theis
steven johnson syndrome
can be caused by sulfonamides
can be caused by herpes simplex
what drug may cause hemolytic aplastic anemia in pts with _________ deficiency
sulfonamides
G6PD
how does rifampin work?
RNA synthesis inhibitor; binds B subunit of bacteria DNA dependedn RNA polymerase
does rifampin go to CNS?
yes
is rifampin used for gram + or -
gram +
name some pathogens that rifampin is used against
gram + organisms
neisseria
mycobacteria (M. tuberculosis)
atypical mycobacteria M. leprae
prophylactic use for meningitis by H flu or menngococci
what is mech of quinolones?
inhibit DNA gyrase; useful against UTI infectsion bc they concentrate in urine.
what do you use against bacillus anthracis?
ciproflozacin
metronidaxole is used for aerobic or anerobic pathogens?
anaerobic
what drug is useful to treat c difficile
metronidazole
metronidazole has a ________ like effect therefore should be avoided by those who use ___________
disulfiram like effect

avoided by alcoholics
isoniazid is analog of what?
vit B6
most effective drug against m. tuberculosis?
isoniazid
isoniazid is given with _________
pyridoxine (b6)
ethambutol is used to treat ______________. it caues ______ disturbances
m tuberculosis
visual
what drug decreases urate acid secretion and may precipitate gout?
ethambutol
name the two drugs used to treat Mycobacterium Leprae
Dapsone (similar to sulfonamides bc it inhibits folic acid biosynthesis; may cause methembolboginemia and hemolysis as side effect) and rifampin
what is ususally used to treat MAC?
azitrhomycin and ethambutol with addition of ciproflozin in some cases
amphoteracin b is used to tx what?
severe funal infections; it binds to ergosterol major component of fungal cell membrantes; it forms ampoteracin pores that allow leakage of cellular contents. does not bind to bacteria bc they don't have ergosterol. Binds to mammaian cholesterol but with much lower affinity (explains side effects)
ketoconazole is used to treat what?
disseminated blastomycosis; histoplasmosis and paracoccidiomycosis.
seborrheic dermatities.
side effects of ketaconazole
may cause gynecomastia; ihibits p450 metabolism
gatric upset, itching
miconazole is used to treat what
tinea pedis
what is used to treat tinea pedis
micronazole
what drug is used to treat cruptococcal meningitis, disseminated histoplasmosis, coccidiodomycosis, systemic candidiasis; penetrates CNS
Fluconazole
Nystatin is used for waht?
skin infections of mouth, mucus membrantes. it is too toxic for systemic use. similar mech to amphoteracin B
griseofulvin mechanism? use?
bind micrtotubuesl and prevent spindle formation in fungi. also binds keratin; accumulates in hair nails skin

used for hair/nail infections
what drug is choice for pneumocistis jirovecii
TMP SMX