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213 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is this etiology for:
A rickettsial Organism a. EIA b. Potomac Horse Fever c. EVA d. Herpesvirus Infection |
B.) Potomac Horse Fever
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Equine Monocytic Erhlichiosis refers to:
a. EIA b. EVA c. Herpesvirus infection d. Foal Pneumonia e. PHF |
E.) Potomac Horse Fever
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How is tetanus infection in horses aquired.
a. Entry of the organism from soil into wounds b. fecal-oral contamination c. Oro nasal contact with infected material d. bug bites |
A.) Entry of the organism from soil into wounds
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Is an option for EIA horse, is permanent quarantine rather then slaughter
True or false |
True
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EVA a reportable disease in Canada
True or false |
True
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What are the main clinical signs of Horses affected with strangles.
a. Ventral adominal edema and petechiation of mucus membranes b. Paralysis of muscles of inispiration c. Abortions of prego mares even if the mare was never noticed sick d. Swollen and abscessed lymph node of the head and neck e. ataxia, progressing to paralysis of the jaw muscles then other large muscle groups |
D.) Swollen and abscessed lymph nodes of the head and neck
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What is the most effective treatment for Equine Influenza
a. AB Therapy b. IV fluids c. Anti inflamatory drugs d. trot 2x a day for 10 mins to clear airways e. Rest in clean air environment |
E.) Rest in clean air environment
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Which of the following clinical signs is most compataible with Rhinopneumonitis
a. Upper resp disease and severe joint pain causing lameness b. upper resp disease and abortions of prego mares c. Abscessation of the lymph nodes d. paralysis of jaw muscles e. Severe diarrhea |
B.) Upper Resp disease and abortions of prego mares
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First vaccines against influenza using the IN vaccines are reccommended at what age
a. 6-8weeks b. 8-10 weeks c. 12-14 weeks d. 7-9 months e. 11-13 monyhd |
E.) 11-13 months
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What age should you first vaccinate against tetanus. should start foals at:
a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 13 months d. 3 months if foal is from unvaccinated mare, 6 months if foal is from vaccinated mare |
A.) 3 months
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A horse with Potomac fever is contagious to other horses and should be isolated
true or false |
False
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A horse with Potomac Fever is contagious to humans
True or False |
False
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The causitive ageint in strangles is
a.) Rhodococcus b.) Corynehbacterium c.) Streptococcus d.) Actinobacillus |
C.) Streptococcus
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Infection of which body system is at the root of the problem in the horse with Tetanus?
a. GIT b. Resp system c. Uro-genital System d. The CNS e. Muscular system |
D.) CNS
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Cases of Wee in man usually show up:
a.) Never Wee is not zoonotic b.) Before horse cases but after sentinel chicken cases c.) Before both chicken and horse cases d.) after both horse and chicken cases |
D.) After both horse and chicken cases
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What system is mostly affected in the horse with WEE/EEE is:
a.) GIT b.) Resp system c.) Uro-genital System d.) CNS |
D.) CNS
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West nile, western equine Encehpalitis, EEE are all zoonotic encephalidities Man get this disease from mosquitos that have bitten infected
a.) Horses b.) Birds c.) Humans d.) Mice and other rodents |
B.) Birds
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The Reservoir host is Wee and Eee is:
a.) the horse b.) man c.) birds d.) Mice and other rodents e.) Mosquito |
C.) Birds
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What is the etiology of EIA:
a.) rickettsial organism b.) Lentevirus c.) Biting flies d.) Snails e.) Streptococcus equi bacteria |
B.) Lentevirus
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What is the reason that there is a federal test and slaughter policy regarding EIA is:
a.) Infected horses once recovered can relapse and then serve as resvoirs from which other horses may be infected b.) the disease is zoonotic c.) the disease may spread to cattle and cause untold millions of dollars for agricultural economy d.) disease may spread to chicken flocks and from them to man |
A) infected horses once recovered can relapse and then infect other horses
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How long is an Equine Health check preformed by a accredited vet is good for:
a.) 3 months b.) 6 months c.) 1 year d.) 30 days e.) 1 week |
d.) 30 days
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Clinical signs of a mare affected with EVA may include all of the folowing except
a.) Abortion b.) Edema c.) cough d.) Tetany |
D.) Tetany
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With a sick or stressed adult hourse one should always be on the lookout for a secondary complication of
a. Navicular disease b. sidebones c. ringbones d. laminitis e. tendinitis |
D.) Laminitis
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Any time ruminants or horses display clinical signs of oral, udder, and cornoray band blisters condition is reporable in Canada
True or False |
True
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EIA diagnosis is made via:
a. comercial in house kit b. hematocrit indicating sever anemia c. serum test (red top tube) only at an accredited lab d. plasma test (purple top) only at an accredited lab |
C.) Serum test at an accredited lab (red top)
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Which of the following clinical signs is not consistent with a diagnosis of vesticular stomatitis
a. lameness b. acute mortality c. excess salvation d. blistering and ulceration in the mouth e. fever and depression |
b.) acute mortality
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what is canadas appraoch to VS
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check imports and all supsects or animals that have been in contact with VS, also quarantine and suspects found in Alberta until a definitive diagnosis is made as this is a reportable disease
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The problems with VS include all of the following except:
a. it has a high fatality rate b. it causes economic losses in decreased milk and meat production c. it symptoms entirely resemble thouse of Foot and Mouth Disease e. Inter species spread occurs |
A.) It has a high fatality rate
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which of the following statements concerning VS and Foot and Mouth is incorrect
a. VS affects horses and F and M do not b. Both VS and F and M cause blisters in both the oral area and coronary band of affected c. both vs and fm are zoonotic although the diseasein humans are not typically serious d. Both VS and FM cases are euthanized in Canada e. Both VS and FM cause economic losses other than death |
D.) both VS and FM cases are euthanized in canada
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a client calls and wants to arrange to have his 3 year old stallion vaccinated against EVA.
what needs to be done before he can be vaccinated against the disease |
need to be blood tested and found to be negative
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Rhinopneumonitis in horses is cause by:
a. chlamydial organism b. rickettsial organism c. corona virus d. herpes virus e. flu virus |
D. herpes virus
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which one of the following is a herpes virus known to infect the upper resp tract of cats
a. calici virus b. chlamydia c. panleukopenia d. rhinopnumonitis e. rhinotracheitis |
e. rhinotracheitis
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what is the main route of entry for Chlamydial infection in cats
a. oral b. aresol c. in-utero d. via milk e. contact with mucus membranes of the eyes |
e. contact with mucus membranes of the eyes
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how many days should you wait before force feeding a cat
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2 days it is really important to get food in them after this point or they will get fatty liver
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the tissue and body systems affected by panleukopenia (distemper) in the cat are most like which canine disease
a. canine distemper b. canine parvo c. canine hepatitis d. canine parinfluenza e. canine corona |
B. Canine Parvo
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Which of the following is least characteristic of panleukopenia
a. dehydration b. Icterus c. Neurologic signs including ataxia d. abortion e. very low WBC |
Icterus
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considering the method of spread of feline panleukopenia. isolation of hospitalized panleukopenia cats is not indicated
True or False |
False, Cats should be Isolated
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Considering the tissues affected, clinical signs and etiology which of the following treatments would be least indicated for a panleukopenia cat
a. antitussives b. antiemetics c. ABs d. Blood transfusions e. Iv fluids |
a. antitussives
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which disease is transmitted by cat biting one another.
a. panleuk b. fip c. flv d. Fiv e. fIA |
d. FIV
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a cat displaying ascites progressivly should be considered for:
a. panleukopenia b. FIP c. FIV d. FLV e. FIA |
b. fip
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The Etiology for FIP is:
a. Parvo Virus b. corona virus c. Protozoan d. bacteria e. mycoplasma |
B. Corona Virus
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Which disease is transfered from flea bites
a. panleuk b. FIP c. FLV d. FIV e. FIA |
E. FIA
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which diease has highly fatal clinical manifestations resulting from the reaction of the cats immune system
a. Panleuk b. FIP c. FLV d. FIV e. FIA |
B. FIP
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which phrase below does not mean the same as the other phrases.
a. Hemobartonellosis b. FIV c. fIA d. mycoplasma hemofelis Infection e. all the phrases belong together they all refer to the same thing |
B. FIV
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Immunosurpression is most characteristic of:
a. FIV b. FIP c. Felv d. both a and c e. both a and b |
D. Both A and C
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true or false
a cat with panleuk who has a FCoV titer of 3 is most likely safe to bring into a home with a FCoV free cats |
false
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Neoplasia is most characteristic of
a. FIV b. FIP c. FeLV d. both A and C e. Both A and B |
a. FIV
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concerning FIV and vaccines which one is most accurate
a. no vacc avaiable b. vacc are core because cats who are vacc rarely ehibit the disease c. vacc are not generally reccommended for indoor cats d. vacc are available but are not reccomended because efficacy is low e. none of the above |
c, vacc are not generally recommended for indoor cats
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a cat displays lethargy, inappetence and mild diarrhea prompting its owners to take it to their vet. Teh cat tests +ve for FelV. Two months later, it still tests +ve but has recovered from its former illness and appears well clinically in all respects. It:
a. will likely dies within 3 years b. has latent FeLV infection but will not get sick from it and will not shed it in the enviroment c. has successfully beaten the virus, will not shed, will not be sick from it d. does not need to be isolated e. should be Vaccinated |
a. will most likely die w/in 3 years
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The bulbonic plague in Felines refer to.
a. pneumonia b. lymphadenopathy c. Infection from mice d. Septicemic infection e. highly fatal form |
B. Lymphandenopathy
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Dry form of FIP responds to
a. favourably to treatment b. not at all c. with limited chances of working d. originally will be treated, but will reoccur again frequently |
a. responds favourably
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blood from cats infected with mycoplasma hemofelis will not display reticulocytes because mycoplasma infects and damages bone marrow where red blood cells are made
true or false |
false
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Of the following disease, formite are likely to be of most concern for:
a. FIV b.FIP c.FeLV d. Mycoplasma Hemofelis e. Panleukopenia |
E. Panleukopenia
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concerning Toxoplasmosis the most severe infection occurs at
a. first trimester b. second trimester c. third trimester d. at term |
b. second trimester
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methods of transmission of Fel Plague to man does not include
a. bites and scratches from infected cats b. flea bites c. handling infected hosts such as rodents d. aerosol transmission from cat to man e. aerosol transmission from man to man |
d. aerosol transmission from cat to man
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The main underlying pathologic even occurring to FIP is:
a. Uveitis b. enteritis c. dehydration d. cardiomyopathy e. vasculitis |
e. vasculitis
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regarding cats and shedding of Toxoplasma gondii eggs.
a. infected cats shed for life b. most infected cats will stop shedding w/in 9 months only 10% become shedders for life c, only 4% of cats are carriers and shed for life d. cat remain carriers for life, but only shed each time they contact the parasite again e. cats shed only for 2 weeks and only the first time they encounter the parasite |
E cats shed only for 2 weeks and only the first time they encounter the parasite
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Of the following the least important meassure a prego human should take to avoid contracting Toxoplasmosis is:
a. get rid of all pet cats b. wash garden veggies c. cook meat adeqately d. wash cutting boards after being used for meat or veggies e. feed cats only commercial foods, allow no raw meat and no hunting |
a. get rid of all pet cats
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which of the cat respiratory disease pathogens is also associated with abortions
a. calicivirus b. rhinotracheitis virus c. chlamydial psittasci d. all three |
b. Rhinotracheitis virus
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Which of the cat respiratory disease pathogens is also associated with oral ulcers
a. calicivirus b. rhinotracheitis virus c. chlamydia psittasci d. all three |
a calicivirus
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which of the cat respiratory disease pathology is also associate with human conjunctivitis
a. calicivirus b. rhinotracheitis virus c. Chlamydia psittasci d. all three |
c. chlamydia psittasci
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which of the cat resp disease pathogens is associated with persistent latency and a carrier state
a. calicivirus b. rhinotracheitis virus c. chlamydia psittasci d. all three |
d. all three
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for which of the following cat diseases is there a vaccine
a. FIV b. Mycoplasma hemofelis c. toxoplasmosis d. Yersinia pestit d. none of the above |
a. FIV
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which of the following is not listed by AAFP as a core vacc for all cats (indoor or outdoor)
a. herpesvirus b. calici virus c. chlamydia d. Panleukopenia e. rabies |
C. chlamydia
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cats with chronic recurrent infections that may respond to tx but then relapse should be tested for
a. fiv and felv b. fip and fia c. panleukopenia d. mycoplasmosis e. panleukopenia and fiv |
a. fiv and felv
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Mrs shults calls to enquire about primucell vacc. You know her cat scott and know he is not allowed outside at all, and that he is the only cat in the household what should you tell her?
a. Yes because even indoor cats are not likely to have close oral contact w/ feces from an infected cat b. no, because indoor cats are not likely to enounter fleas from infected cats c. no because single indoor cats with feces from an infected cat d. yes because ven indoor cats can contact the virus via aerosol spray through screen doors e. no because a single indoor cat wont have close encounter with saliva from infected cat |
b. no because cats will not come in contact with fleas most likely
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feline plague may be suspected in cats displaying a combo of 3 C/s which of the following is not one of these
a. fever b. recurrent infections that improve or replapse repeatedly c. lymph nodes swelling and inflammation d. inflammation of the lungs |
c. lymph nodes swelling and inflammation
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the wet form of FIP is the chronic form
True or false |
False
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Enisyl-P is a tx for:
a. FIP b. FeLV c. FIA d. Cat distemper e. Herpes virus |
b, FeLV
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A Horse is exibiting the following clinical signs, ataxia, long periods with legs crossed occasionally walking into walls standing with head resting over the fence rail, once he climbed up onto a big round hay bale, these clinical signs are most suggested of:
a. EVA b. PHF c. Tetanus d. EIA e. WEE/EEE |
E. WEE/EEE
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Swamp Fever is another name for:
a. EVA b. Strangles c. PHF d. WEE/EEE e. EIA |
E. EIA
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Sleeping sickness is another name for:
a. EVA b. strangles c. PHF d. WEE/EEE e. EIA |
d. WEE/EEE
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A client checks his horses one early morning, to find one of the mares has aborted, The mare does not now look sick, and he can't remember her ever being sick. Which of the following diseases is a potential cause of the abortion:
a. Influenza b. Rhinopneumonititis c. EVA d. A and B e. B and C |
e. B and C
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Basterd strangles is:
a. spread of the disease t/o the body b. a particularly severe case of strangles c. strangles occuring in foals where the father is unknown d. disease mimicking the clinical signs of strangles but caused by a different organism e. a case of the disease unresponsive to treatment and causes the owner to use foal language |
A. spread of the disease throughout the body
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An EIA test is valid for:
a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 1 week d. 1 year e. only for that particular border crossing, or events that is it must be redone each time the horse is to cross the border or for each event it enters |
b. 6 months
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what is the etiological agent of Potomac Horse Fever:
a. Neorickettsia risticii b, Erlichia risticci c. Neorickettsia erlichia d. Erlichia rickettsia e. Neoerlichia rickettsia |
A. Neorickettsia risticii
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Concerning Rhodococcus equi, all of the following are true except:
a. it lives in the soil b. it is spread in the feces of adult horses c. peak infection occurs at 10-11 months of age when colostral ab's are wearing off d. it causes multiple pulmonary abscesses e. it is acquired by foals housed in poor ventilated stalls |
c. Peak infection occurs at 10-11 months of age when colostral ab's are wearing off
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Foals sick with Rhodococcus infection tend to keep nursing and may appear BAR, thus hiding the fact that they are infected.
True or Falso |
True
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Prognosis for foal infected with Rhodococcus is:
a. >90% survive with treatment b. >70% survive with treatment c. ~50% survive with treatment d. <10% survive with treatment |
B. 70%
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Concerning Rhodococcus infection in foals, all of the following are true except:
a. main route of infection is inhalation b. foals that succumb have low levels of CD4-T lymphocytes c. Foals that succumb have low levels of Interferon-gamma d. The bacteria invades macrophages in the respiratory tract and reproduce there e. Infection is highly correlated with foaling in dusty outdoor foaling pens |
e. Infection is highly correlated with foaling in dusty outdoor foaling pens
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You are accompanying the Vet you work for on a field call to castrate a colt. What vacc do you include in your castration kit.
a. Herpes b. Tetanus c. Strangles d. PHF e. Penicillin or oxytetracylcine |
b. Tetanus
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The drug of choice for treating a foal infected with Rhodococcus include rifampin plus
a. Oxtetracycline b. Azithromycin c. doxycycline d. Penicillin e. tilmicosin |
B Azithromycin
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In order to more effectively traceback cattle to their origin, the CCIA requires:
a. all cattle to be tagged with a radio frequency ear tag at birth b. all cattle be tagged with either a bar-coded on radio frequency ear tag at birth c. all cattle to be tagged with eiter a bar coded or radio frequency ear tag before leaving the ranch they were born on. d. all cattle be tagged with a radio frequency ear tag before leaving the ranch of birth e. all cattle be tagged with bar coded war tag before leaving the ranch they were born on |
D. all cattle be tagged with a radio frequency ear tag before leaving the ranch of birth
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Distemper in horses refers to which disease:
a. Herpes b. Strep Equi (strangles) c. Rhodococcus Equi d. Influenza e. Equine Viral arteritis |
B. Strep Equi
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what is the protocol for vaccinating prego mares against EHV-1 associated abortions
a. Before breeding only b. During every month of gestation c. at months 5,7,9 of gestation d. In the last month of gestation only |
C. At months 5,7,9 of gestation
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The vaccines considered to be the core vaccines recommended for virtually all horses include all except:
a. Herpes b. WEE c. Tetanus d. West Nile Virus e. EEE |
A. Herpes
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The vaccine a horse owner living near marshy wet areas may consider is:
a. EVA b. PHF c. Herpes d. EIA e. Strangles |
b. PHF
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Two vaccines a breeding farm may consider for preventing abortion in brood mares are:
a. PHF and EVA b. Influenza and Herpes c. Herpes and EVA d. strangles and EVA e. strangles and Herpes |
c. herpes and EVA
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For some equine diseases, both IM and IN vaccines are available . In order to best provide high levels of colostral ab's, prego mares should be vacc with the:
a. Intranasal vacc b. Intramuscular vacc |
b. Intramuscular Vacc
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Of the disease the rhinopneumonitis virus can casue in horses, there have been a recent upswing in:
a. Neurologic cases b. abortion cases c. upper resp d. neonatal septicemia cases e. pneumonia cases |
a. Neurologic cases
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How do horses get EVA
a. aerosol only b. aerosol and oral only c. bite from mosquito only d. bite from large fly e. none of the above |
e. none of the above
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How do horses get EIA (predominant method)
a. aerosol only b. aerosol and oral only c. bite from mosquito only d. bite from large fly e. none of the above |
D. Bite from large fly
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How do horses get Influenza
a. aerosol only b. aerosol and oral only c. bite from mosquito only d. bite from large fly e. none of the above |
A. aerosol only
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How do horses get WEE?
a. aerosol only b. aerosol and oral only c. bite from mosquito only d. bite from large fly e. none of the above |
C. Bite from mosquito only
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how do horses get strangles
a. aerosol only b. aerosol and oral only c. bite from mosquito only d. bite from large fly e. none of the above |
e. none of the above
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How does horses get herpes:
a. aerosol only b. aerosol and oral only c. bite from mosquito only d. bite from large fly e. none of the above |
b. aerosol and oral only
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How do horses get EEE:
a. aerosol only b. aerosol and oral only c. bite from mosquito only d. bite from large fly e. none of the above |
c. bite from mosquito only
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How do horses get West Nile Virus:
a. aerosol only b. aerosol and oral only c. bite from mosquito only d. bite from large fly e. none of the above |
c. bite from mosquito only
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how do horses get PHF:
a. aerosol only b. aerosol and oral only c. bite from mosquito only d. bite from large fly e. none of the above |
E. None of the above
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How do horses get Rhodococcus - Pneumonic form:
a. aerosol only b. aerosol and oral only c. bite from mosquito only d. bite from large fly e. none of the above |
a. Aerosol only
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How do horses get VS:
a. aerosol only b. aerosol and oral only c. bite from mosquito only d. bite from large fly e. none of the above |
E. None of the above
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Clostridium botulinum does not cause harm in the normal animal because:
a. it is in spore form b. it only grows in necrotic tissue c. it only grows in dead waterfowl d. it can only grow once it encounter air e. the normal animal can readily neutralize any toxins produced |
B. it only grows in necrotic tissue
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Horses can acquire botulism intoxication be ingesting botulism spores
true or false |
true
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A common way liveskock acquires botulism is by drinking water contaminated with toxin laden maggots
true or false |
true
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There is an available vaccine for botulism.
True or false |
True
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There is an avaible antitoxin for treating botulism
true or false |
true
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Botulism causes:
a. cns signs b. rigid paralysis c. flaccid paralysis d. both a and b e. both a and c |
c. flaccid paralysis
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A 9 week old brussel griffon puppy is brought today to the clinic for first vacc, Puppy lives near city of edmonton, It uses the backyard to eliminate:
should the puppy get Rabies vaccine today? yes or no |
No, wait until it's 3rd set of vaccines
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According to AAHA which of the following vacc would be considered least important for a indoor puppy who lives in the city first vaccines:
a. leptospirosis b. corona c. Parvo d. distemper e. hepatitis |
b. corona
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concerning the puppy who is 4 months old, lives in edmonton and excretes his waste outdoors only in his backyard. what statement below is correct:
a. the puppys vaccine should be next month b. the puppys vaccine should be in 1 year c. the puppys vaccine should be in 3 years d. the puppy will not need any further vaccine as long as MLV vaccines were used |
a. The puppies next vacc should be in one month
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giving the age of the puppy (4 months) the measlesvirus vaccine should be used instead of the distemper vaccine to protect against distemper
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false
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Concerning vaccines, which statement below is correct?
a. In general MLV are more expensive b. in general killed vacc are safer and do not need a booster c. in general MLV vaccine require mixing a diluent with a powder the product should be used within the hour d. all the above are correct e. none of the above are correct |
c, In general MLV vacc require mixing a diluent with powder, the product should then be used within the hour
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A red top tube is used to collect plasma True or false
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false
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Colostral ab's in cats:
a. interfere with vacc for up to 8-12 weeks in kittens b. are passed to the kitten through the placenta c. provide local immunity but not systemic immunity d. provide protection to the neonate for less time than colostral ab's in puppies e. are unimportant they are important only in dogs and large animals |
A. interfere with vacc for up to 8-12 weeks in the kitten
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plasma is the fluid component of blood minus the clotting proteins True or False
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False
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A client finds a stray dog and adopts it. The dog is brought to the clinic where you work for vaccines, the dog is evidently at least 1 year of age, and the vet has decided to use MLV vacc the recommendation is:
a. vacc today, booster in a month, then again in 1 more month, adding rabies at this time b. vacc today, including rabies, then booster in a month and again in 1 more month c. hold the dog for 10 days to see if rabies signs develop if not vacc at that time d. vacc the dog today, including rabies, then booster at 1 year of age, and then every 3 years e. vacc the dog today including rabies, then every 3 years |
d, vacc today include rabies, then booster at one year of age and then every 3 years
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the cause of death in animals suffering dehydration is usually:
a. dried out tissues do not function well b. Blood ph is altered to the point where CNS and cardiac tissues fail c. hypothermia d. lethargy to the point where eating and drinking activities are abandoned e. severe diarrhea causes loses of essential nutrients |
b. blood ph is altered to the point where CNS and cardiac tissues fail
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dogs vacc against corona virus infection, do not need to also be vacc against Parvo True or False
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False
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which of the following vacc is recommended by AAHA to not be used for dogs?
a. Giardia b. Leptospirosis c. Lyme d. Parainfluenza e. Adenovirus-2 |
a. Giardia
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Of the following species least likely to be affected by, or to be a carrier/shedde of Leptospirosis is:
a. cats b. dogs c. ruminants (cattle, moose, elk, goats, sheeps) d. hogs e. Rodents |
a. Cat
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Parvo infection carries an approx 15-35% mortality even with treatment
True or false |
True
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With Leptospirosis infection treatment carries an approx 95-100% success rate True or False
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False
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The etiology of Leptospirosis is best described as:
a. a bacteria b. a virus c. a rickettsia d. a prion e. a spirochete |
E. spirochete
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Canine Distemper:
a. aerosol acquisition is the pricipal method of acquisition b. Both oral and aersol are equally important methods of acquisition c. oral acquisition is the principal method of acquisition d. Neither Aerosol or oral acquisition are principal methods of acquisition |
A. Aerosol acquisition is the principal method of acquisition
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Canine Hepatitis
a. aerosol acquisition is the pricipal method of acquisition b. Both oral and aersol are equally important methods of acquisition c. oral acquisition is the principal method of acquisition d. Neither Aerosol or oral acquisition are principal methods of acquisition |
B. Both oral and aerosol are equally important method of acquisition
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Canine Infectious Respiratory Disease Complex:
a. aerosol acquisition is the pricipal method of acquisition b. Both oral and aersol are equally important methods of acquisition c. oral acquisition is the principal method of acquisition d. Neither Aerosol or oral acquisition are principal methods of acquisition |
a. aerosol acquisition is the pricipal method of acquisition
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Herpes Virus infection of dogs:
a. aerosol acquisition is the pricipal method of acquisition b. Both oral and aersol are equally important methods of acquisition c. oral acquisition is the principal method of acquisition d. Neither Aerosol or oral acquisition are principal methods of acquisition |
B. Both oral and aerosol are equally are equally important methods of acquisition
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parvo virus infection of dogs:
a. aerosol acquisition is the pricipal method of acquisition b. Both oral and aersol are equally important methods of acquisition c. oral acquisition is the principal method of acquisition d. Neither Aerosol or oral acquisition are principal methods of acquisition |
c. oral acquisition is the principal method of acquisition
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Corona virus infection of dogs:
a. aerosol acquisition is the pricipal method of acquisition b. Both oral and aersol are equally important methods of acquisition c. oral acquisition is the principal method of acquisition d. Neither Aerosol or oral acquisition are principal methods of acquisition |
c. oral acquisition is the principal method of acquisition
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Rabies:
a. aerosol acquisition is the pricipal method of acquisition b. Both oral and aersol are equally important methods of acquisition c. oral acquisition is the principal method of acquisition d. Neither Aerosol or oral acquisition are principal methods of acquisition |
d. Neither areosol or oral acquisition are principal methods of acquisition
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which of the following is known to spread via the placenta to the unborn fetus and cause abortion:
a. distemper b. Leptospira interrogans c. Herpes virus d. rabies virus e. Hepatitis virus |
b. Leptospira interrogans
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Local immunity provided by colostral ab's is time sensitive occuring only within the first 24 hours of life
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False
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A vacc dog is bitten by a rabies suspect, the rabies suspect is not contained. The federal protocol for the bitten dog is best represented by which choice below:
a. booster it's vacc and quarantine it for 10 days, if no clinical signs develop all is well b. booster its vacc and quarantine it for 45 days c. booster its vacc and quarantine it for 6 months if no clinical signs develop all is well d. it must be euthanized and the head sent to the lethbridge lab for rabies diagnosis e. booster it's vacc, because the vacc is consdered very good, no quarantine period is necessary |
b. booster its vacc and quarantine it for 45 days, if no clinical signs develop, all is well
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which of the following is known to spread through the milk to nursing young and cause infection:
a. hepatitis virus b. herpes virus c. leptospira interrogans d. parvo virus e. both b and c |
c. leptospira interrogans
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Given the stability of various organisms in the enviroment for which of the following, canine disease are formites least likely to be involved in the spread of disease:
a. hepatitis b. parvo c. corona d. leptospirosis e. distemper |
d. leptospirosis
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For which of the following dog diseases does no vacc exist:
a. corona virus b. parvo virus c. leptospirosis d. hepatitis e. herpes virus |
e. herpes virus
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If a rabies suspect is brought into the clinic where you work, the protocol for you clinic is:
a. contain the animal and call the fed vet. the police and the Dr. if anyone is bitten b. Euth the animal and sent the head to the lab c. vacc the dog, then contain it and call the fed vet d. send the animal home with its owner with instructions to quarantine it for 45 days if vacc, 6 months if not |
a. contain the animal and call the fed vet, the police and the Dr.
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Intravenous fluids are an important component of therapy for all of the following except:
a. leptospirosis b. parvo c. canine infectious respiratory disease complex d. hepatitis e. distemper |
c. canine infectious resp disease
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Distemper Virus:
A. localizes in and damages liver b/v, kidneys predominantly b. damages tips of intestinal villi c. damages rapidly dividing cells of the body, intestinal villi, hemopoietic and cardiac tissue d. extensively damages resp tract and ocular epithelial cells e. proliferates and causes damage only at body temps below 39*C |
D. Extensively damages resp tract and ocular epithelial cells
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Hepatitis Virus
A. localizes in and damages liver b/v, kidneys predominantly b. damages tips of intestinal villi c. damages rapidly dividing cells of the body, intestinal villi, hemopoietic and cardiac tissue d. extensively damages resp tract and ocular epithelial cells e. proliferates and causes damage only at body temps below 39*C |
a. Localizes in and damages liver, b/v, kidneys predominantly
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Herpes virus
A. localizes in and damages liver b/v, kidneys predominantly b. damages tips of intestinal villi c. damages rapidly dividing cells of the body, intestinal villi, hemopoietic and cardiac tissue d. extensively damages resp tract and ocular epithelial cells e. proliferates and causes damage only at body temps below 39*C |
e. proliferates and causes damage only at body temps below 39*C
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Parvo virus:
A. localizes in and damages liver b/v, kidneys predominantly b. damages tips of intestinal villi c. damages rapidly dividing cells of the body, intestinal villi, hemopoietic and cardiac tissue d. extensively damages resp tract and ocular epithelial cells e. proliferates and causes damage only at body temps below 39*C |
C. damages rapidly dividing cells of the body, intestinal villi, hemppoietic nad cardiac tissue
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Corona Virus:
A. localizes in and damages liver b/v, kidneys predominantly b. damages tips of intestinal villi c. damages rapidly dividing cells of the body, intestinal villi, hemopoietic and cardiac tissue d. extensively damages resp tract and ocular epithelial cells e. proliferates and causes damage only at body temps below 39*C |
B damages tips of intestinal villi
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Leptospira Interrogans:
A. localizes in and damages liver b/v, kidneys predominantly b. damages tips of intestinal villi c. damages rapidly dividing cells of the body, intestinal villi, hemopoietic and cardiac tissue d. extensively damages resp tract and ocular epithelial cells e. proliferates and causes damage only at body temps below 39*C |
a. Localizes in, and damages liver blood vessels, kidneys predominantly
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For which of the following may antitussives be useful therapy:
a. Canine infectious resp disease b. parvo c. leptospirosis d. distemper e. hepatitis |
a. canine ifectious resp disease
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Isolation of contagious animals is important in preventing spread of disease. Which of the following does not warrant isolation:
a. distemper b. hepatitis c. parvo d. herpes virus e. leptospirosis |
d. herpes virus
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The fed protocol for a rabies suspect dog that has bitten a person is:
a. euth immediately and send head to lab b. contain and quarantine the dog for 10 days c. booster rabies vacc and quarantine the dog for 45 days if vacc, 6 months if not vacc d. vacc the dog and allow it to go free e. tie it to a fig tree for 30 days |
b. contain and quarantine the dog for 10 days
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A litter of 1 1/2 wek old puppies presents with pronounced lethargy and diarrhea and a very marked mucopurulent oculonasal exudate and dyspnea. Two of the litter had already stopped eating and had died, this clinical pic is most characteristic of which of the following:
a. lepto b. hepatitis c. parvo d. herpes virus e. distemper |
e. distemper
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the body fluid considered most contagious in a lepto case is:
a. urine b. blood c. feces d. discharge from coughing e. all of the above |
a. Urine
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Generally th most appropriate term to describe the prognosis of the average dog being treated for hepatitis is:
a. grave b. guarded c. Excellent |
b. Guarded
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Rabies is transmitted via:
a. saliva b. blood c. urine d. feces e. a and b |
a. Saliva
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antibody production by WBC that have encountered an antigen is known as humoral immunity:
true or false |
True
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Petechiation is a frequent freature of all except:
a. parvo infection b. lepto c. hperpes virus infection d. hepatitis infection |
a. parvo infection
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An in house commercial kit exsists to test for:
a. corona infection b. parvo infection c. hepatitis infection d. canine infectious resp disease e. herpes virus infection |
b. parvo infection
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BUN is:
a. a blood test for kidney function b. a urine test for kidney function c. a blood test for liver function d. a urine test of kidney and liver function e. something to eat at dinner |
a. a blood test for kidney function
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Clinical signs characteristics of lepto in adult cattle include all except:
a. hematuria b. abortion c. blood in milk d. decreased milk production |
a. hematuria
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which one of the following is not characterisitic of a animal in hypovolemic shock:
a. prolonged capillary refill time b. slow heart rate with weak pulse c. cold extremities d. skin tent persisting > 2 secs e. eyeball recession (sunken eyes) |
b. slow heart rate with weak pulse
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Which natural defence does the resp system of animals not possess:
a. nasal turbinates b. mucociliary elevator c. cough and sneeze reflex d. macropahges lining the resp epithelium e. nasal hair |
e. nasal hair
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which of the disease we studied is zoonotic and also reportable:
a. lepto b. distemper c. herpes d. parvo e. rabies |
e. rabies
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two serovars of Leptospira interrogans have been added to recently developed vacc one of them is:
a. Icterhemorrhagiae b. grippotyphosa c. bratislava d. hardjo e. canicola |
b. grippotyphosa
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which of the following represents a method of transmission of lepto in cattle that is not seen in dogs is:
a. via urine entering mucus membrane or abrasions b. via milk to nursing young c. via sexual activity in carrier males d. via passage through the uterus into a developing fetus |
c. via sexual activity in carrier males
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Which vacc is not considered by AAFP to be core for cats:
a. rhinotracheititis vacc b. feline leukemia virus vacc c. panleukopenia vacc d. calicivirus vacc e. rabies vacc |
b. feline leukemia virus vacc
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Canine Hepatitis is caused by K9 adenovirus-1 True or false
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True
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what is the recommended schedule of vacc for kittens/cats for core vaccs?
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first set at 8-10 weeks, booster in 1 month then at 1 year then every 3 years
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The reason young animal get so many vacc within its first few weeks of life is:
a. it's immune system is too young to respond to just one vacc b. it is more susceptible to diseases when young, so needs more vacc c. it may have colostral ab's from its mother that negate the vacc for awhile d. it may not have received colostral ab's from its mother so needs the extra protection multiple vacc provide |
c. it may have colostral ab's from its mother that negate the vacc for awhile
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which of the following is not susceptable to K9 distemper virus
a. wild cats b. bears c. seals d. Kinkajous e. Domestic cats |
e. domestic cats
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Infectious tracheobronchitis occurs in:
a. distemper b. hepatitis c. lepto d. herpes e. canine infectious resp disease complex |
e. canine infectious resp disease complex
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The etiology of Lyme disease is:
a. burferi burgdorelli b. borrelia burgdoferi c. burrolia burferia d. burgdoferi borelli e. burgdorelia burferi |
b. borrelia burgdoferi
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The best way to preven Lyme diseas in a dog is:
a. avoid contact with other infected dogs b. avoid contact with infected deer c. vacc against lyme disease d. remove ticks w/in 24 hours e. do not feed lime margaritas |
d. remove ticks within 24 hours
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The main clinical signs in a dog with Lyme disea are:
a. arthritis, lethargy, swollen lymph nodes b. Pu/PD petechiation, hematuria c. Vomiting, diarrhea, hematochezia d. abortion |
a. artheritis lethargy, swollen lymph nodes
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Lyme disease is spread by only one species of tick:
True or false |
True
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Which diseases are core for K9's (more than one ans pick all that apply)
a. distemper b. parvo c. herpes d. leptospirosis e. rabies f. bordetella g. giardia h. corona i. hepatitis j. Lyme |
parvo,
distemper, rabies, hepatitis (adeno -2) |
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which vaccines are considered to be core for Cats (more than one answer pick all that apply)
-FIP In - Chlamydia MLV - Rhinotracheitis - calici - rabies - panleukopenia - Felv |
- rabies
- panleukopenia - Calici - Rhinotracheitis |
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Which vaccines are considered core for (Horses)
-Tetanus - WEE - EEE - West Nile - Foot and Mouth - Vascular Stomatitis - Rhodococcus - EVA - Influenza - Strangles - Botulism -Potomac Horse Fever - Rabies - EIA |
Rabies
Tetanus EEE WEE West Nile |
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Which vaccines should you add for horses (such as brood mares and traveling horses?)
EIA PHF Botulism Strangles EVA Rhodococcus Vascular Stomatitis Foot and mouth Equine Herpes Virus Influenza |
Equine Herpes virus
Influenza EVA |
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why would you vacc a horse against strangles:
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Prehaps in large group situations where new horse are introduced often
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Why would you vacc against PHF
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If near marshy area's or expensive horse
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What disease does this etiology describe and what species:
Type 1 and Type 2 influenza |
Horse Influenza
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What disease also is described as Horse flu
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Influenza
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What disease is described by a etiology of robust soil bacteria
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Rhodoccus Equi
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What is Persistant Pneumonia also known as (equine)
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Rhodococcus Equi
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What disease in equine is known as a herpes virus
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Equine Rhinopneumonitis
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What Rhinopneumonitis strain is a respiratory infection
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EHV-4
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What strain (rhinopneumonitis) is a reproductive tract, resp tract, neurological system, and neonate infection
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EHV-1
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What is equine strangles also known as
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Equine Distemper
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What disease has an etiology of Strepococcus Equi a bacteria
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Stangles
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What is this etiology describe which disease:
clostridium tetani (spore forming ) |
Equine Tetanus
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What disease does this etiology describe: Clostridium Botulimium
(bacteria sprore forming) |
Botulism intoxication
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What is WEE and EEE known as also
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Encephalmyelitis - Sleeping sickness
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What disease does this etiology describe Arborvirus
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EEE and WEE
and West Nile Virus |
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What mosquito type is WEE and EEE
a. Togavirdae b. Flavivirdae |
b. flavivirdae
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What disease does this etiology describe as Arterivirus (equine)
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EVA
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What is another name for swamp fever
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EIA
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What equine disease causes etiology lentevirus
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EIA
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what disease does this etiology describe Neorickettsia risticii
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Potomac Horse Fever
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what horse disease does this etiology describe: viral disease that affects cattle, horses, swine, deer and humans
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Vascular Stomatitis
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what disease in dogs does this etiology describe: measles disease
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K9 Distemper
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What disease does this etiology describe: CAV-1
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K9 Hepatitis
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What is fading puppy syndrome also known as
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Herpesvirus
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What disease does this etiology describe CAV-1 and 2.
parainfluenza bordetella mycoplamsa |
Canine infectious respiratory disease complex
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What is another name for canine bordetella
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k9 infection respiratory diseases
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what disease does this etiology describe CPV-2
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Canine Parvo Virus
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what k9 disease does this etiology describe RNA Virus
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Rabies virus
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what feline disease does this etiology describe Lentevirus
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Feline Immunodeficiency Virus
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What fel disease does this Etiology describe a FCOV (corona virus)
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FIP
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what fel disease does this etiology describe Yersini Pestis
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Feline Plague
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what is another name for Mycoplasma Hemofelis or hemobartonella felis
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Feline Infectious Anemia
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What cat disease does this etiology describe mycoplasma hemofelis
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FIA
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what is another name for feline distemper
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fel Panleukopenia
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what cat disease does this etiology describe: a parvo virus
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Panleukopenia
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What cat disease does this etiology describe: a protozoan
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Toxoplasmosis
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what is another name for cat colds
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upper respiratory disease
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what cat disease does these etiologys describe
Herpes virus calici virus Chlamydia Psittiaci Bordetella Bronchiseptica |
Feline Upper Respiratory Tract Disease
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