Firstly, John Steinbeck is an agnostic through and through so why does he think that he can redefine the bible? Secondly, he uses worst version of the bible to compare, no one likes the ASV because it is inaccurate. Thirdly, in hebrew they do not use special pronouns; therefore, all of the possible translation Steinbeck offers are in invalid. However, the best option Steinbeck offered is for sure thou shalt. After 2 and a half hours of translating hebrew and greek text and also double checking bible commentaries I found that the promise thou shalt would be the most correct. Finally, I am pretty sure Steinbeck did not research any of this stuff because I did that research paper on him and even if he did research why would any of us take advice
