Then, he would plug in x+xo for x and y+yo for y, leaving him with the equation 7(y+ýo)-5(x+x’o)^2-2. He would then subtract the original equation from the changed calculation: 7(y+ýo)-5(x+x’o)^2-2-(7y-5x^2-2)=0. 7y+7ýo-5(x^2+2xx’o+x’^2o^2)-2-7y+5x^2+2=0. 7y+7ýo-5x^2-10xx’o-5x’^2o^2-2-7y+5x^2+2=0. 7ýo-10xx’o-5x’^2o^2=0. Then, Newton would divide by o, leaving: 7ý-10xx’-5x’^2o=0. He tried claiming that the terms with o were nothing compared to the others and that they can be cast out into 7ý-10xx’=0. 7ý=10xx’. Ý=10xx’/7. In the end getting ý/x’=10x/7 as the end result …show more content…
First, it had surfaced due to the timing of Newton and Leibniz’s publications. Since Newton had made his findings in about 1664-1666, his breakthroughs were not published until right about 1693. While Leibniz, had made his right after Newton, in about 1672-1676, but he didn’t publish them until about 1684, 1686, before Newton ever did. Now mind this Newton was in England while Leibniz was in Germany so they were not on the same continent. Well, with the differences between the dates of the discovery and publications had led the “mathematical community” (fitchburgstate 1), to start questioning as whether or not Liebniz had actually made the discovery or if he had plagiarized Newton’s ideas and included them with his own notation. Those who were involved started realizing that the new branch of math (calculus) was at stake so; England and Germany wanted their country to get the credit for it. After a while they ended up in court over the controversy and therefore, they looked into the