The French did have the right to sell the land. They did have the right to sell the land because it was theirs. My second reason why he had the right to sell it was because the Spanish gave the land to them. My last reason as to why the French had right to sell the land was because they had no money to start their war with the British.
The French had the right to sell the land because it was theirs. It was their land because the Spanish trade the land to the French. For example,” It was controlled by the French who had a few small settlements along the Mississippi River and other main rivers”.(Herring,2008) Another example is ” Spain agreed to trade Louisiana to France,passing the problem on to someone else”.(Deverell,White,2006) My …show more content…
They had the right to sell the land because the Spanish traded it to them. For example, “Spain controlled both New Orleans and Louisiana.”(Deverell, White, 2006) Another example is “ Although Spain owned Louisiana, Spanish officials found it impossible to keep Americans out of the territory.”(Deverell, White, 2006) Last example is “Years of effort failed to improve Spain’s position,Under a secret treaty,Spain agreed to trade Louisiana to France, passing the problem on to someone else”.(Deverell, White, 2006)
The French had the right to sell the the land because they had no money to start war with the British. For example,”Napoleon needed money to fund his wars of conquest in Europe.”(Kortchick,2016) Another example is,”Napoleon knew that a lot of money would be needed for an upcoming war with Britain”.(uni.edu,2015) My last example is “Tension was building between Britain and France. ”(uni.edu,2015) These are all examples of how the French wanted to start war with Britain.
In conclusion,these are all of the reasons why the French had the right to sell the land.For example the Spanish gave the land to them so they wouldn't have the problem between the Americans and them.Another example is how they it was there land, and they needed money to start war with the
The French had the right to sell the land because it was theirs. It was their land because the Spanish trade the land to the French. For example,” It was controlled by the French who had a few small settlements along the Mississippi River and other main rivers”.(Herring,2008) Another example is ” Spain agreed to trade Louisiana to France,passing the problem on to someone else”.(Deverell,White,2006) My …show more content…
They had the right to sell the land because the Spanish traded it to them. For example, “Spain controlled both New Orleans and Louisiana.”(Deverell, White, 2006) Another example is “ Although Spain owned Louisiana, Spanish officials found it impossible to keep Americans out of the territory.”(Deverell, White, 2006) Last example is “Years of effort failed to improve Spain’s position,Under a secret treaty,Spain agreed to trade Louisiana to France, passing the problem on to someone else”.(Deverell, White, 2006)
The French had the right to sell the the land because they had no money to start war with the British. For example,”Napoleon needed money to fund his wars of conquest in Europe.”(Kortchick,2016) Another example is,”Napoleon knew that a lot of money would be needed for an upcoming war with Britain”.(uni.edu,2015) My last example is “Tension was building between Britain and France. ”(uni.edu,2015) These are all examples of how the French wanted to start war with Britain.
In conclusion,these are all of the reasons why the French had the right to sell the land.For example the Spanish gave the land to them so they wouldn't have the problem between the Americans and them.Another example is how they it was there land, and they needed money to start war with the