Depravity In The Bible

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Total Depravity A God. A man. A woman. A fruit. A choice. A separation. A disease. One of the most widely known stories of the Bible is of Adam and Eve. It is the story of creation by God who gave Adam and Eve a single rule-- don’t eat the fruit from the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. However, they do anyway. This cataclysmic event triggered the end of life as they knew and would change the future for all of us. Sin was released upon the earth like ink spilled over a white paper. This unleashment is called the fall, and its result is total depravity. The depravity of man describes this event’s ramifications which are that humans are completely sinful in their mind, body, spirit, and emotions. Nothing we do is righteous, and everything …show more content…
However, the Bible, the inspired word of God, teaches contrary to that belief. If investigated, the Bible alludes to the depravity of man in many different verses including Ephesians 2:1-5. Verse three says, “among whom we all once lived in the passions of our flesh, carrying out the desires of the body and the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, like the rest of mankind.” The passions of our flesh are the lusts of man such as money, sex, or power. God is inspiring Paul to testify that every human to ever walk the earth will follow the desires of their flesh rather than pursue righteous. Isaiah 64:6 says, “We have all become like one who is unclean, and all our righteous deeds are like a polluted garment.” This means that everything we do is unclean before God, who is righteous and cannot be in the presence of sin, and even though we may do good, like help the homeless, it is still unrighteous in the eyes of the Lord. Now, one aspect of total depravity is that man is not as evil as he can be, but although man may suppress his sinful desires he is still considered a child of wrath like Ephesians says. This is further corroborated in Romans 14:23, “For whatever does not proceed from faith is sin.” Since we are sinful, what hope is there for mankind if the Bible also states in Romans 6:23 that, “the wages of sin is …show more content…
The idea of him coming to God and humbly asking for His forgiveness while being wicked doesn’t make sense. In fact, the unbeliever’s free will choice will be to reject God’s gift. Therefore, God must overcome our depravity by revealing man’s sinful state to himself. Also, God is omniscient which means he is all knowing. Isaiah 40:13-14 says that no one can fathom the ways of the Lord, and no one instructed Him. Since God is all knowing and man cannot come to him without becoming regenerated by the Holy Spirit, then God must have the foreknowledge on who would be saved and who would forever burn in hell. Verses like Ephesians 1:4-5 and Romans 8:28-30 present an idea of predestination which is defined by Merriam Webster as the doctrine that God in consequence of his foreknowledge of all events infallibly guides those who are destined for salvation. Since this truth takes away the choice of whether or not to be saved, it presents a dilemma for people. Paul addresses this problem in the book of Romans. “You will say to me then, “Why does he still find fault? For who can resist his will?’ But who are you, O man, to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, “Why have you made me like this?’ Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for dishonorable use?” God is the creator, is all powerful, and all knowing, so who can rebuke

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