One of the most notable differences I would add to the examples that you stated would be the Catholic’s use of the Apocrypha to determine their Canon and body of Ecclesiastical Law. In the Protestant …show more content…
Not surprisingly for that time period, several chapters of some books of the Bible to include entire books were intentionally omitted because of their content. It was believed at the time that the book of Esdras was intentionally omitted because it addressed angels, in human form, engaging with humans and this could have potentially led to a version of “angel worship” (for lack of a better description) in common people who were unintelligent enough to read the original Latin/Hebrew manuscript and understand the context. Not forgetting that at that time only priest were allowed to read directly from the Word of God and it was their job to interpret it and pass it to their congregation. Of course, the (legend) thought at the time was that it was more important that the book go into mass production than it being a 100% literal translation of the original manuscript from which it was being converted. We all know the political motivations the English Monarchy had for the push to print at that time. I enjoyed your descriptions of the similarities and differences and I appreciate the opportunity to revisit these