Free will first appears during …show more content…
For instance, during his downfall, Macbeth, now King, distinctly remembers the prophecy of the three witches, which states that Banquo’s “descendants will be king” (Act I Scene 3). Threatened by Banquo’s heirs, Macbeth decides to hire murderers to kill Banquo and his son Fleance. Later, fearful of his deeds, Macbeth starts to become hysterical and believes that Banquo’s ghost is haunting him. Thus, Macbeth starts to feel anxious of his fate and decides to visit the witches. The witches then state a new prophecy, in which it states to “Beware Macduff” (Act IV Scene 1). This causes Macbeth to plot Macduff’s murder in his own castle, only to discover that Macduff has fled to England to plan to revolt against Macbeth. However, this plot is not in vain as Macbeth decides to kill Macduff’s family instead. As the play comes to a close, both Macbeth and Macduff’s army fight, eventually ending with Macbeth’s death. Therefore, it is shown that, although he utilized his free will to achieve what he desired, Macbeth’s fate was sealed and, thus, trounced his free will in the end. Shakespeare’s Macbeth presents a harrowing story of a man’s realization of his own, limited free will. Macbeth portrays the theme as a consistent fight against the equity of free will and fate. It is believed that we, as humans, possess the ability of free will. However, when one transitions their priority to personal ambition and greed, fate will try to restore balance. Therefore, the constant struggle between fate and freewill relies solely to establish balance in one’s evil